for grammarians II

rich7   Thursday, March 10, 2005, 18:36 GMT
From my previous post I started a polemic which I find very interesting, viewing the countless standpoints of prescreptivists and objectivists we can conclude that there is not absolute truth.

So let's keep on the controversy; taken from the other post, I found this:


"the children raised their hand" It is supposedly wrong, why?

It also begs the following question: How can I be sure if the children are raising both hands each or just one? what if I write this: the chidren raised their hands......
Ved   Thursday, March 10, 2005, 18:56 GMT
It's a matter of convention. When we say "raise one's hand", we visualise the action of putting one hand up in order to attract a lecturer's attention, ask to be allowed to speak or, for example, vote. I'd never imagine a person raising both their hands if I heard a sentence like: "She raised her hand."
Ved   Thursday, March 10, 2005, 19:00 GMT
Having cast a second glance at my last sentence, this is (of course) also because the word "hand" is singular in this sentence.

Still, I mostly imagine those children from your example sentence raising just one hand, rather than two.
Chamonix   Thursday, March 10, 2005, 19:04 GMT
Rich7,

You have to think in a more standard way. Don't get stuck with things like one hand or 2 hands :)
It's correct to say "the children raised their hands". One reason is that you are talking about children =plural and hands=plural also.Logically and mathematically, the sentence is correct because there are at least 2 children (beacuse you said children and not child) who would raise their hands (even if just one hand, this would make 2 hands).

I know it sounds funny, but I am good with mathematics.:)
Deborah   Thursday, March 10, 2005, 19:09 GMT
I agree with Chamonix. "The children raised their hand" sounds wrong to me.
rich7   Friday, March 11, 2005, 03:08 GMT
Point taken, thanks Ved, Chamonix (by the way, what's with this name?) and last but no least Deborah
Doubts   Friday, March 11, 2005, 14:24 GMT
Is this correct:

''Everybody does what they please.''

(Shouldn't it be: Everbody does what he/she/it pleases?).


-Everybody does what they please- can mean
Everybody (here) does what (some other people) please...
Travis   Friday, March 11, 2005, 14:36 GMT
Yes, it is correct, as "they" here is serving as a singular, not as plural, despite what some prescriptivist sorts with little knowledge of actual current usage would contend.
Chamonix   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 18:53 GMT
rich7,

I assume you know that Chamonix is a city in France, close to Switzerland.
One reason I chose it is because it's one the most beautuful palces I have ever been.Maybe not the city itself, but the mountains, which I love a lot.
Other reason, but not the last, is that I spent some time in France.
Daniel   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 19:22 GMT
Chamonix-Mont-Blanc, Haute-Savoie (Upper Savoy), FR, close to the Swiss-Italian border.
Chamonix   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 19:37 GMT
beatuful=beautyful
palces=places
Someone   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 20:11 GMT
beautiful
fleur   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 21:52 GMT
Travis
how do you know this is the singular use of "they" and not the plural, replacing the collective noun "everybody", to mean 'the individuals'.

How do you decide if it means single person/thing of any gender, or many people?
Travis   Saturday, March 12, 2005, 21:57 GMT
You tell such by context. It's no different from telling whether "you" is plural or singular, really.
greg   Sunday, March 13, 2005, 22:15 GMT
(1) French <les enfants levèrent la main> (they raised one hand each)
(2) French <les enfants levèrent les mains> (they raised two hands each)

(1)&(2) English <the children raised their hands>

In French noun number is required whereas it is not in English.

Question : does English go periphrastic to render either (1) or (2) distinctively instead of both simultaneously ?