Personalized infinitives in Spanish
">>Please don't try stupid sarcasm with me, if I was refering to another person I wouldn't say "my country" I would just say "the country" that's why saying "my country" will almost always be refering to myself."
Well, even that way there is something called
emphasis.
">>That's cuz Spaniards don't usually use the past verbs, instead of saying "I went" they usually say "I have gone" or instead of saying "I ate" they say "I have eaten", etc. which tecnically is wrong, that's why it would sound bad to most spaniards but it is perfectly fine (if not the ebst option)"
It seems that you told to a Spaniard once, next time try to notice that Spaniards use both tenses, which is quite normal, it just puzzed you because you probably use almost exclusively one, like many other Latin Americans.
Anyway, that has nothing to do with our question. I think there is no apparent reason for avoiding "fuiste" here, I mean no other than the similarity with the "antes de que" structure.
"they usually say "I have gone" or instead of saying "I ate" they say "I have eaten
The simple past tense is indeed used in Spanish but it depends on the frame of time. For example if I ate an omelet yesterday in Spanish it's : "Ayer comí una tortilla". But if I ate an omelet for dinner tonight then you say: "He comido una tortilla para cenar esta noche". Do you get it? This may be different in American Spanish. I'm talking about Castilian Spanish."
Castilian and most of the other accents/dialects in Spain, exception being Canarian Spanish, Asturian Spanish and Galician Spanish.
You're welcome.
Spaniards use mostly "have + past participle" instead of the simple past tense for example:
Latinos
Me caí = I fell | Tomé = I took | Abrí = I opened
Spaniards
Me he caido = I've fell | He tomado = I've taken | He abierto = I've opened
It's like if someone said "I've gone to school yesterday" instead of "I went to school yesterday".
He tomado = He is a tomato.
<<''Antes de mim sair do meu país'' (Southern Brazilian Portuguese)>>
That's not called "personalized infinitive", it's called ignorance.
<<Spaniards use mostly "have + past participle" instead of the simple past. It's like if someone said "I've gone to school yesterday" instead of "I went to school yesterday".>>
This is how french people speak also..and it has always bothered me; something about it seems awfully vulgar to me.
"Spaniards use mostly "have + past participle" instead of the simple past tense for example:
Latinos
Me caí = I fell | Tomé = I took | Abrí = I opened
Spaniards
Me he caido = I've fell | He tomado = I've taken | He abierto = I've opened
It's like if someone said "I've gone to school yesterday" instead of "I went to school yesterday"."
You're a big fat liar, it's not like that. Spaniards have got all the two tenses, just like Brithish. Very few people if anyone in Spain say "He ido a la escuela ayer", you bastard. The problem is just the opposite, many Latin Americans seems to use the present perfect even less than speakers of American English. For some of them it doesn't even exist.
According to John M. Lipski (the author of the book ''Latin American Spanish''), personalized infinitives are common in Colombian and Caribbean Spanish.
"Spaniards use mostly "have + past participle" instead of the simple past tense for example: ''
Yes, in this way Castillian spanish usage is closer to the Northern Italian one while Latin spanish is close to Portuguese usage (have+past participle is used only for continuous present perfect) and Southern Italian. Simple past is preferred.
>"Spaniards use mostly "have + past participle" instead of
> the simple past tense for example: ''
>>Yes, in this way Castillian spanish usage is closer to the
>>Northern Italian one while Latin spanish is close to
>>Portuguese usage (have+past participle is used only for
>>continuous present perfect) and Southern Italian. Simple
>>past is preferred.
Have you got any example of that usage? Or for a start, do you speak Spanish at all?
Both "me caí" and "me he caído" are used in Peninsular Spanish.
in Latin American Spanish:
''me caí" means
1. I fell
2. I've fallen:
"me he caído" means:
1. I've been falling
<<me he caído" means:
1. I've been falling>>
Where the verb to be is in " me he caído"?
I've been fallin = Me he estado cayendo.
me caí - I fell (Spaniards almost never use this one)
me he caído - I've fallen (They usually use this one in past tenses even though it's incorrect.)
me he estado cayendo - I've been falling
me habia caído - I had fallen
me caí - I fell (Spaniards almost never use this one)
We do use it as frequently as past perfect. If I fell yesterday then in Castilian Spanish I say "Me caí" but if I fell a few minutes ago then I say "Me he caído". I already explained this twenty times on this forum. As another Guest said, it's the Latin Americans who use past simple only when sometimes it may be more convenient to use past perfect.
me he caído - I've fallen (They usually use this one in past tenses even though it's incorrect.)
¿Es incorrecto ? Anda niño, aprende español y luego hablamos.
"me caí - I fell (Spaniards almost never use this one)
me he caído - I've fallen (They usually use this one in past tenses even though it's incorrect.)
me he estado cayendo - I've been falling
me habia caído - I had fallen "
Puto sudaca de mierda, seguro que de pequeño te caíste de boca y se te dañó el cerebro. Eso, o tu padre te la metía por el culo cuando eras un bebé, en cualquier caso parece que te quedaste subnormal para siempre, tarado de los cojones.
Sólo a modo de ejemplo de uso del indefinido en español peninsular...