Any ambiguity between between french verb endings

I know the -ent is not pronounced in the 3rd person plural of French verbs such that the following two forms are pronounced the same.

il donne - he gives - and ils donnent - they give.

Does this situation ever cause any ambiguity for French speakers?

Does this situation ever cause any ambiguity for French speakers?

What about English verbs then?? IoI

In English, we say "he gives" and "they give", so it is not ambiguous like French is.

In English, we say "he gives" and "they give", so it is not ambiguous like French

I know that but you say "you" "you" "they" give, not to mention other tenses like the past simple I, you,he, we, you, they gave....

yes, but aren't "ils" and "il" pronounced the same way most of the time? I find there isn't much confusion that comes from the ambiguity of "you" (whether singular or plural), because the people you are referring to are the people to whom you are speaking, allowing for eye contact and other body language to communicate the object.

<<In English, we say "he gives" and "they give", so it is not ambiguous like French

I know that but you say "you" "you" "they" give, not to mention other tenses like the past simple I, you,he, we, you, they gave....>>

Yes, but none of them are pronounced exactly the same like "il donne" and "ils donnent" are, idiot.

I have always wondered how and why French came to completely ignore half the sounds in each word. What is so difficult about saying "parleS"?

The French are too lazy to pronounce all the words in a letter.

jef you are an idiot. You don't know a thing about linguistics

<<I have always wondered how and why French came to completely ignore half the sounds in each word.>>

The spelling is not meant to represent any sounds. The endings are just orthographical conventions put there artificially to represent inflectional grammar that has long dissapeared from the language.

Its not that they're ignoring sounds, its that those sounds are not part of the language.

It is abolutly not a story of "prononce" a letter or not, or "to be lazy". French language follows just a different way than Spanish or Italian. Some letters were prononced in Old French but are not now. It's an evolution as logical as an other one. English speeling isn't logical sometimes : the letter 'u' in 'rules" and in 'to burn' is prononced differently and it doesn't mean that English people is totally crazy.

<<yes, but aren't "ils" and "il" pronounced the same way most of the time?>>

That isn't true if you make the liaison if "ils" is followed by a word that starts with a vowel. Such as "ils ont" would be pronounced eelz-ohn.

Then again, that is not always the case. If "ils" is not followed by a follow, the S will always be silent. For instance, "il parle" and "ils parlent" is pronounced the same. If that is the case, then context will usually take care of the ambiguity.

Blanka : « I know the -ent is not pronounced in the 3rd person plural of French verbs such that the following two forms are pronounced the same.
il donne - he gives - and ils donnent - they give.
Does this situation ever cause any ambiguity for French speakers? ».

Oui, les deux formes sont totalement homophones : /ildɔn/. De même que <elle donne> & <elles donnent> : /ɛldɔn/.

Cependant, pour qu'il y ait ambiguïté, encore faut-il que le contexte s'y prête. Dans la mesure où le pronom personnel reprend un substantif déjà connu — dont le nombre ne saurait être à la fois singulier et pluriel—, il y a peu de place pour l'équivoque.