Mixed leísmo and non leísmo at the same time
Can someone tell me why 'le' and 'lo' are used as direct objects in the same sentence? Is this common?
"El cantante, de 50 años, sufrió una parada cardiorespiratoria en su casa de Los Ángeles.- Los médicos trataron de reanimarle en su residencia antes antes de trasladarlo a un hospital"
From El País website.
Do you find it strange?
Leismo is standard in European Spanish.
Yes, but how do you find the use of both 'le' and 'lo' in the same sentence.
<Yes, but how do you find the use of both 'le' and 'lo' in the same sentence. >>
Doesn't bother me in the slightest -- in fact I had to reread ti a couple of times to find the "lo".
Maybe you should ask the RAE for their opinion.
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In certain older printed texts in English, the same word can be spelled two different ways in the same sentence.
From the King James Bible, S. Matthew, Chap. XXIIII, 23:
"So likewise yee, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is neere, euen at the doores."
<<El cantante, de 50 años, sufrió una parada cardiorespiratoria en su casa de Los Ángeles.- Los médicos trataron de reanimarle en su residencia antes antes de trasladarlo a un hospital.>>
The correct form in 90% of Spanish speakers should be:
"El cantante, de 50 años, sufrió una parada cardiorespiratoria en su casa de Los Ángeles.- Los médicos trataron de reanimarlo en su residencia antes antes de trasladarlo a un hospital"
Leismo is a mistake being promoted by Spaniards (just because they invented the language doesn't mean they can't screw it up), and since they control the Spanish Lenguage Academy, they already added their mistake as an alternative to the correct form.
Just the fact that the word Leismo exists should tell you that it is not the norm, but a phenomenum however popular it might be in Spain.
Spanish is the language of the Spanish and we do with it whatever we want to, how are you to tell us what is wrong or not? Precissely you the Latin Americans who usually misspell words because don't distinguish Z from C. You are clearly ignorant because if you knew the history of Spanish you should know that RAE never had clear opinion about leismo and they changed their mind in many occassions about this subject. Leismo always existed, it's nothing new at least in Spanish. In was correct centuries ago, later RAE decided that LE should be used only as Indirect Object and now it is correct again to use LE as direct object (masculine only). Some people say native speakers are never wrong, I disagree, but in this case LE is even correct according to RAE prescription, so how are you to discredit the opinion of the most important authority in the Spanish language? By the way, RAE is not controlled by the Spanish as this institution works in collaboration with the American Academiae, and if RAE accepts voseo and other atrocious things that exist in American Spanish, you must also accept leismo as correct and stop saying it is wrong.
It's not that strange. Northern Spaniards use the set of pronouns le, les, la, las, lo and los in a non-standard way. The leism for a singular man, which is now considered acceptable again by the RAE, is just the tip of the iceberg. As a result, when they have to deal with formal language, they hesitate and make a lot of mistakes.
It is a shame that leism is spreading throughout Spain thanks to the television. Only the Canary Isles and Andalusia seems to be immune, thanks God.
In Andalusia they mix usted with vosotros conjugation, so every region has its peculiarities.
-In Andalusia they mix usted with vosotros conjugation, so every region has its peculiarities. -
This is true only in some cities like Cadiz. In most cities, Ustedes is used with its verbal form, and vosotros (both pronominal and verbal) is archaic, just like in Canaries.
"In Andalusia they mix usted with vosotros conjugation, so every region has its peculiarities."
Yes, but only in a few places, and anyway, educated people can shift both ways or use just the standard one. The problem is that in the North, even educated people and TV presenters seem to have trouble with pronouns. For example, I've noticed that in the on-line edition of some newspapers, laísmo is not as unusual as it used to be.
How cares, Vosotros is standard in Spain, not Ustedeo. Andalusian is considered low class in the rest of Spain.
because Andalusian Spanish is more or less the standard off of which Latin American Spanish was based, so it may be low class in Spain, but more people speak like Andalusians than Northern Spaniards.
Vosotros is standard in Spain, not Ustedeo.
1. of course not, Ustedes is always more elegant than lowly Vosotros
2. Here in Canary Islands, no one uses Vosotros, it's always Ustedes, I guess people here are more polite