Less and fewer

Ed   Fri Mar 17, 2006 4:09 pm GMT
I was always taught that the word 'less' was applied to quantities and 'fewer' to numbers.

For example:

"There is less water in a raindrop than in a lake"

but

"There are fewer than ten people on the bus"

Recently hower I've started hearing "less" used where I think "fewer" should be used. For example aisles marked "six items or less" and sentences about "less road deaths" on the BBC.

Is this rule being dropped now or are people who should know better just becoming sloppy or pandering to populism?
Ant_222   Fri Mar 17, 2006 4:21 pm GMT
It seems that «fewer» does refer to only countable nouns, whilke «less» can be used with both countable and uncountable.

http://www.alt-usage-english.org/excerpts/fxlessvs.html
Ed   Fri Mar 17, 2006 4:27 pm GMT
The dictionaries seem to say it is incorrect to use "less" for countable nouns.
Guest   Fri Mar 17, 2006 5:35 pm GMT
Well, in real life, that's how people speak. Sometimes dictionaries aren't correct.
Ant_222   Fri Mar 17, 2006 8:18 pm GMT
«The dictionaries seem to say it is incorrect to use "less" for countable nouns»

Only part of dictionaries, according to the link a have provided.
Travis   Fri Mar 17, 2006 9:13 pm GMT
>>The dictionaries seem to say it is incorrect to use "less" for countable nouns.<<

That's a silly prescriptivist position that is not in line with actual usage in many if not most English dialects today.
Ed   Sat Mar 18, 2006 12:13 am GMT
In real life people are often wrong, for example saying "pacific" when they mean "specific" or spelling "bananas" as "banana's".
Guest   Sat Mar 18, 2006 12:17 am GMT
I agree with Travis. That "rule" against using "less" with countable nouns is absurd.
Travis   Sat Mar 18, 2006 12:56 am GMT
>>In real life people are often wrong, for example saying "pacific" when they mean "specific" or spelling "bananas" as "banana's".<<

The thing is that what you are speaking of here are fundamentally different matters than what the "less" matter is about. "Pacific" versus "specific" is a matter of misspeaking, and often people will correct themselves when they catch themselves in such cases. As for "bananas" versus "banana'", that is a matter of orthographic conventions, which have practically nothing to do with how people actually natively speak.

In contrast to both of those cases, "less" versus "fewer" is a matter of some sorts prescribing what is normal native usage for some section of the English-speaking world as being "incorrect" for whatever arbitrary reason. This one is in particular a case where very widespread usage contradicts what some prescriptivist sorts dictate as being "correct", as amongst large portions of the population, the only people who insist on "fewer" rather than "less" for countable nouns are the specific kind of people who would actually support this kind of thing i.e. people like pedants and English teachers and like. Of course, this excepting the (seemingly smaller) sections of such where such is a natively made distinction.
Boy   Sat Mar 18, 2006 7:37 am GMT
Nowadays I am hearing a bizarre sentence especially from British speakers on music channels. "I had the bestest time."

"The bestest??".. isn't it a wrong form used?
Ant_222   Sat Mar 18, 2006 11:25 am GMT
«In real life people are often wrong, for example saying "pacific" when they mean "specific" or spelling "bananas" as "banana's»

Dictionaries are written by people too. The difference is that the writers pretend to know what they are writing about. However, the criteria of correctness is something different: if the majority uses 'less' with countable nouns, why call it incorrect?
Alicia   Sun Mar 19, 2006 9:04 am GMT
Oh dear, before you go about bashing dictionaries, remember that there still IS a distinction between colloquial and formal usage. Though it's all right to use "less" all the time in speech, there's still a formal distinction between "less" and "fewer" when you're writing your doctoral thesis!
Travis   Sun Mar 19, 2006 9:54 am GMT
>>Oh dear, before you go about bashing dictionaries, remember that there still IS a distinction between colloquial and formal usage. Though it's all right to use "less" all the time in speech, there's still a formal distinction between "less" and "fewer" when you're writing your doctoral thesis!<<

For just whom? If it is not being read by pedantic English profs, I doubt it really matters myself.
Alicia   Mon Mar 20, 2006 3:44 am GMT
Oh no, I'm not saying it matters, but you really can't say that the dictionaries are wrong or silly, can you?
Ant_222   Mon Mar 20, 2006 8:13 am GMT
But when two dictionaries state opposite things, one of them should be considered incorrect (or less correct than the other...).