I've been listening to some accent samples at http://web.ku.edu/idea/dialectmap.htm and I've noticed that some accents in the North and Scotland pronounce intervocalic and/or initial 'r' as a flap/tap (like Spanish, etc.). In at least one sample (Scotland Three), the speaker uses this allophone in prevocalic positions, but [r\] in post-vocalic ones. Is this fairly widespread in these areas, and where does it or does it not apply? (I know some Northern accents are non-rhotic, so they don't have any post-vocalic r's anyway.)
Pronunciation of 'r' in Scotland and northern England
I think in Scotland it is very common to have realize /r/ as [4]; and as you observe, it may be that some speakers use [4] especially in initial and intervocalic position. I think [4] is limited to Scotland though - I think that all the rhotic English people I've heard have tended to just use approximants.
In England, I think the main surviving non-rhotic areas are actually in the Southwest. For example, the samples from Devon (England 31 though England 38) have some good examples of rhotic speakers. (The best examples are from the older speakers like 31, 32, and 38, whereas younger speakers like 35 seem to be less rhotic.)
In England, I think the main surviving non-rhotic areas are actually in the Southwest. For example, the samples from Devon (England 31 though England 38) have some good examples of rhotic speakers. (The best examples are from the older speakers like 31, 32, and 38, whereas younger speakers like 35 seem to be less rhotic.)
Sorry, I meant "the surviving rhotic areas". There's no shortage of non-rhotic English people. ;-)
Yes, I'm more interested in the accent of certain non-rhotic areas where pre-vocalic /r/ is [4]. England Sixteen through Eighteen are from Liverpool and pronounce their r's as [4]. I was just wondering how widespread this realization is in England. Is it limited to Liverpool? Also, what is the distribution of the different realizations in Scotland? Some speakers use only [4], while others use [4] pre-vocallicaly and [r\] post-vocalically.
<<Yes, I'm more interested in the accent of certain non-rhotic areas where pre-vocalic /r/ is [4]. England Sixteen through Eighteen are from Liverpool and pronounce their r's as [4]. I was just wondering how widespread this realization is in England. Is it limited to Liverpool? Also, what is the distribution of the different realizations in Scotland? Some speakers use only [4], while others use [4] pre-vocallicaly and [r\] post-vocalically.>>
I've read that old-fashioned RP had [4] as an intervocalic allophone of /r/, for instance [vE4I] "very".
I've read that old-fashioned RP had [4] as an intervocalic allophone of /r/, for instance [vE4I] "very".
<<I've read that old-fashioned RP had [4] as an intervocalic allophone of /r/, for instance [vE4I] "very".>>
Yes, I've heard of that too. This is where the American stereotype of a "veddy British" accent comes from [ve4I b4It_hIS]. I believe it also occured in consonant clusters.
Yes, I've heard of that too. This is where the American stereotype of a "veddy British" accent comes from [ve4I b4It_hIS]. I believe it also occured in consonant clusters.
<<Yes, I've heard of that too. This is where the American stereotype of a "veddy British" accent comes from [ve4I b4It_hIS]. I believe it also occured in consonant clusters.>>
I've heard of people pronouncing "thr" as [T4]. Some people on another forum have reported that they use [T4] for "thr".
I've heard of people pronouncing "thr" as [T4]. Some people on another forum have reported that they use [T4] for "thr".
They don't seem show as much variation as I would have expected. Blackburn is a Lancashire town with a strong rhotic accent, the closest I could find was Wigan, which is probably only slightly rhotic.
http://web.ku.edu/idea/europe/england/england60.mp3
http://web.ku.edu/idea/europe/england/england60.mp3