Which word order is more acceptable?

Guest   Thu Jan 17, 2008 2:02 am GMT
Between "not be quite oneself" and "be not quite oneself" in a glossary of a book, which one sounds more acceptable to you?
Lazar   Thu Jan 17, 2008 6:30 am GMT
I guess the latter, because I would prefer:

"He's not quite himself."

over:

"He isn't quite himself."
Guest   Thu Jan 17, 2008 7:48 am GMT
I like the latter too, but Lazar's two sentences are the same thing if you take out the contractions.
Lazar   Thu Jan 17, 2008 7:59 am GMT
D'oh! You're right - I don't know what I was thinking. :) In either case, then, I suppose "be not quite oneself" would be preferable.
Guest   Thu Jan 17, 2008 5:03 pm GMT
But then there's:

"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."

In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.
Lazar   Thu Jan 17, 2008 6:01 pm GMT
That's true. The more I think about this, the less clear it seems.
Emilie   Mon Jan 21, 2008 12:51 am GMT
>>But then there's:

"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."

In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.>>

Lol, and actually in that case, I might use a different order from the other two and say, "He wouldn't quite be himself, if he were to have a stroke.