french language is very ambiguous

Mi5 Mick said : "this wouldn't account for Belgian and Switzerland."

Why?

Because when Quebec is having "le déjeuner", so too is France, BUT Belgium and Switzerland are having "le dîner". There's no time difference between these 3 European countries, yet Switzerland and Belgium use the same names (or times) for their meals as Quebec (which is 6 hours behind).

Mi5 Mick,


Impossible, the hour cannot be the same

In Quebec, Belgium and Switzerland: breakfast~"le déjeuner"; lunch~ "le dîner"; and dinner~"le souper".

In France: breakfast~"le petit déjeuner"; lunch~"le déjeuner"; and "dinner"~ "le dîner".

Get it?

French is not more or less ambiguous than English. However, we are taught to use as much precise words as possible. Consequently, the average Frenchman/woman makes much more out of his/her language than the average English speaker does. If the same standards were maintened with English, French would no doubt be outperformed, because its vocabulary is poorer.

Mi5 Mick

thanx!

Mi5 Mick

Wait a minute, there is a contradiction in your post

You said : "Because when Quebec is having "le déjeuner", so too is France" at your 1st post

You said : "In Quebec, Belgium and Switzerland: breakfast~"le déjeuner"; lunch~ "le dîner"; and dinner~"le souper".

In France: breakfast~"le petit déjeuner"; lunch~"le déjeuner"; and "dinner"~ "le dîner". " in your 2nd post.


So, if Quebec is the same as Belgium and Switzerland, it means their ancestors where not french.

So?!

LOL!

It's not wait a minute, it's wait 6 hours! You can work it out.

Well,

In fact it's just like if french was more "germano-celtic" spoken and latine written. Phonems overpass writed theoretical pronunciation. I'm not expert in it but this is simply what I can feel and deduce from the french specificity as a latine written language.