Indian/Arabian literature

Guest   Sun Mar 16, 2008 12:22 am GMT
This statement was made by Lord Macaulay in 1835.

"I have no knowledge of either Sanskrit or Arabic. But I have done what I could to form a correct estimate of their value...I am quite ready to take the oriental learning at the valuation of the orientalists themselves. I have never found one amongst them who could deny that a single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia."

Do you think that statement was a fair assessment of Indian/Arabian literature, and, if so, do you think it would also stand as a fair assessment of modern/contemporary Indian/Arabian literature?
K. T.   Sun Mar 16, 2008 12:48 am GMT
Maybe this belongs in the Languages Forum?
Guest   Sun Mar 16, 2008 10:42 am GMT
This is crock. It's like an Indian or Arab who doesn't know Latin or Greek bashing classical European literature.