Question about "to can"

Shana   Fri Mar 28, 2008 3:49 pm GMT
Hey,
Should I rather say "It can" or "It cans" I do not know if it needs an s at the end. I have another question about this verb, can I say "will can" and "would can" because it sounds weird to me.
Call me CX   Fri Mar 28, 2008 5:10 pm GMT
No, you can not say "it cans". The word "can", when indicating ability, is never inflected, negative contraction aside. You might find a sentence like "the TV show was finally canned after being on the air for 5 seasons", but that doesn't indicate ability.

As for the other question, neither "will can" or "would can" are correct. Good structures to use would be "will be able to" and "would be able to", respectively. There are others, but they're more specific than the more encompassing "be able to".
guest   Fri Mar 28, 2008 7:49 pm GMT
<<No, you can not say "it cans". The word "can", when indicating ability, is never inflected, negative contraction aside. You might find a sentence like "the TV show was finally canned after being on the air for 5 seasons", but that doesn't indicate ability.
>>

Correct. 'Can' represents at least three different and unrelated words:
1). 'can' (be able to, know how to)
2). 'can' (to put in a can)
3). 'can' (short for 'cancel').

"He cans" can only represent a form for meanings 2 and 3.

"Will can"/"would can" therefore are correct forms for meanings 2 and 3 in Standard English. (eg. I will can ['put in a can'] the sardines tomorrow.)

"Will can"/"would can" are legitimate constructions in Scots, and can also be heard in English dialects influenced by Scots, even in the Southeastern US ('he will can leave tomorrow = 'he will be able to leave tomorrow'), but the use is considered substandard at best, even though its use seems to be spreading.
Lazar   Fri Mar 28, 2008 8:00 pm GMT
Shan: "can" is a modal verb in English (standard American and British English at least), which means that it takes no inflection and that it cannot be used in an infinitive form. So it's impossible to say "to can", and likewise you would say "he can" rather than "he cans".

But I understand your problem, and I'll add this: the modal verb "can" seems to have developed a symbiosis to some extent with the regular verb "to be able [to do something]". So I think you could go so far as to say, for example, that the infinitive form of "can" is "to be able", that the simple future form (1st singular) is "I will be able", that the present perfect form (1st singular) is "I have been able", that the simple conditional form (1st singular) is "I would be able", and so forth.
Shana   Fri Mar 28, 2008 8:22 pm GMT
Thank you for your answers, I did not know that, now it is clearer, thanks