What languages were most influential in the middle ages?

Guest   Mon May 05, 2008 1:04 pm GMT
<< the Romanic languages (here Italian) came from barbarian conquerors, i. e. Goths, Lombards and Franks >>

""""
Idiot et faux.
La présence germanique a été un temps sans doute majoritaire dans certaines zones de Wallonie et du Nord-Est français, faible ou très faible ailleurs, nulle dans certains endroits, mais les formes les plus anciennement attestées des dialectes romans y parlés ne montrent pas entre elles de différence structurelle significative.

La question des convergences entre langues européennes n'est pas reconductible à des questions de substrat et/ou de superstrat.

""""

1) why treat others "idiot" if not due to a lack of arguments?
2) Wallonie and North-East France were not the only places where Germanics settled, the migration happened on a European scale.
3) Nivellation of structural differences might be due to dialect continuum. Fact is, that dialect boundaries correlate with historic boundaries of Germanic realms (Goths, Lombards, Franks etc.).
Xie   Tue May 06, 2008 2:53 am GMT
No doubt the division of timelines is very different... if you count from the 5th century to Columbus, China was evolving from the third unified dynasty (though limited to the regions like the Eastern Roman Empire) to the beginning of the second last. I'd say the "middle-age" could be terribly long, depending on whether you think the Chinese Empire is entirely THE middle age. If so, the modern period hasn't even been there for 100 years.
Ouest   Tue May 06, 2008 8:56 am GMT
<< the Romanic languages (here Italian) came from barbarian conquerors, i. e. Goths, Lombards and Franks >>

""""
Idiot et faux.
La présence germanique a été un temps sans doute majoritaire dans certaines zones de Wallonie et du Nord-Est français, faible ou très faible ailleurs, nulle dans certains endroits, mais les formes les plus anciennement attestées des dialectes romans y parlés ne montrent pas entre elles de différence structurelle significative.

La question des convergences entre langues européennes n'est pas reconductible à des questions de substrat et/ou de superstrat.

""""

1) why treat others "idiot" if not due to a lack of arguments?
2) Wallonie and North-East France were not the only places where Germanics settled, the migration happened on a European scale.
3) Nivellation of structural differences might be due to dialect continuum. Fact is, that dialect boundaries correlate with historic boundaries of Germanic realms (Goths, Lombards, Franks etc.).
Guest   Tue May 06, 2008 9:04 am GMT
<<if you count from the 5th century to Columbus>>

Colón, NOT Columbus
Guest2   Tue May 06, 2008 9:14 am GMT
Yes. Some people say that Columbus (Spanish, Colon, Italian, Colombo) was not from Italy (Genoa). Perhaps he was Spaniard. We will know very soon the origins of Columbus. There are a lot of people in two labs studying the bones of this man.
Guest   Tue May 06, 2008 1:29 pm GMT
Guest2 Tue May 06, 2008 9:14 am GMT
<<<<Yes. Some people say that Columbus (Spanish, Colon, Italian, Colombo) was not from Italy (Genoa). Perhaps he was Spaniard. We will know very soon the origins of Columbus. There are a lot of people in two labs studying the bones of this man. >>>

Columbus or Colon did big mistakes like assuming than American idigene peoples were Indian...
Skippy   Tue May 06, 2008 7:14 pm GMT
I've actually heard it argued that he knew he hadn't reached the Indies, and the way we got the term "Indians" was because he claimed they lived "in Dios." Anyone heard this?
zatsu   Wed May 07, 2008 3:01 am GMT
If Colombus was a Spaniard wouldn't he have offered his services first to Spain and not Portugal?
But well, no one knows for sure where the man came from.

I haven't heard the "in Dios" argument yet.
Guest   Wed May 07, 2008 6:53 am GMT
If Colombus was a Spaniard wouldn't he have offered his services first to Spain and not Portugal?

Not necessarily. Think that he could and probably was a jew and jews were prosecuted in Spain. Probably he fled to Portugal to avoid the prosecution and since nobody wanted to support his project in Portugal, he took the risk and offered his services to Spain despite Spain was expelling jews at those times. Curiously Colon didn't leave us too many details about his life, which is strange being such a famous person. So everything makes sense, he hid his identity so the Spanish kings, who were the only ones interested on Colon's ideas, paid his travel to America.
Guest   Fri May 16, 2008 3:01 pm GMT
> Latin - YES
Old German - NO
> By the way, Sanskrit was far more influential than all the "Old German" languages put together.


The Latin cultures and literatures were copy from the Etruscan, Greek and Hebrew, the most. The Germanic peoples become the members of Roman Catholic Church and received the Latinization in the Middle Age. They abandon the most of their own cultures and literatures. Only a few of oral literatures and oral histories were kept to present time, such as the Beowulf, Saga, Das Kudrunlied etc.

The ancient Sanskrit literatures and cultures may be interprated and copyed from the Indus Valley Civilization.