At least that the way it sounds to my ears. It's not like Latin American Spanish.
When did European Spanish become so lispy?
European spanish lispyness and pronunciation of their S's which sounds like between the S and Sh is actually a newer pronunciation compared to Latin American Spanish which conserves older 16th century Andalusian pronunciation mixed with influences of Galician and Standard Portuguese because of mass imigration of that era. That is why standard Latin American pronunciation is softer lacking the strong "J" and "G" pronunciations favoring an "J" and "G" sound that sounds like the American "h" pronunciation.
I don't like to hear Hispanics speaking Spanish with very lisping sound.
I really doubt there was a "mass immigration" from Spanish and Portugal to America on the 16th century though.
">European spanish lispyness and pronunciation of their S's which sounds like between the S and Sh is actually a newer pronunciation compared to Latin American Spanish which conserves older 16th century Andalusian pronunciation mixed with influences of Galician and Standard Portuguese because of mass imigration of that era. That is why standard Latin American pronunciation is softer lacking the strong "J" and "G" pronunciations favoring an "J" and "G" sound that sounds like the American "h" pronunciation.<"
Sources?
Sources?
Pronunciation of 'j'
'J' (and 'g' before 'e' and 'i') used to be a voiceless fricative palatal consonant /ʃ/ until the 15th century. When the first Spanish settlers arrived in the New World, this consonant had started to change its place of articulation from palatal to velar [x], like German 'ch' in Bach. In southern Spanish dialects, though, and in those American dialects strongly influenced by southern settlers (Caribbean Spanish), /ʃ/ did not evolved into a velar fricative [x] but into a softer glottal sound [h], like English 'h' in hope. Glottal [h] is nowadays the stantard pronunciation for 'j' in Caribbean dialects (Cuban, Dominican, and Puerto Rican) and also in mainland Caribbean dialects of Venezuela. Both coastal and inland dialects of Colombian Spanish also show [h] for 'j'. In the rest of the Americas, the velar fricative [x] is prevalent. In most of Argentina (Rioplatense) and Chile, [x] becomes fronter [ç] (like German 'ch' in ich) when it precedes palatal vowels [i, e]: gente, jinete ['çente], [çi'nete]. In Spain, glottal [h] is common in the Canary Islands and Western Andalusian, in the rest of the country [x] alternates with a hardened uvular sound χ sometimes accompanied by uvular vibration.
'J' (and 'g' before 'e' and 'i') used to be a voiceless fricative palatal consonant /ʃ/ until the 15th century. When the first Spanish settlers arrived in the New World, this consonant had started to change its place of articulation from palatal to velar [x], like German 'ch' in Bach. In southern Spanish dialects, though, and in those American dialects strongly influenced by southern settlers (Caribbean Spanish), /ʃ/ did not evolved into a velar fricative [x] but into a softer glottal sound [h], like English 'h' in hope. Glottal [h] is nowadays the stantard pronunciation for 'j' in Caribbean dialects (Cuban, Dominican, and Puerto Rican) and also in mainland Caribbean dialects of Venezuela. Both coastal and inland dialects of Colombian Spanish also show [h] for 'j'. In the rest of the Americas, the velar fricative [x] is prevalent. In most of Argentina (Rioplatense) and Chile, [x] becomes fronter [ç] (like German 'ch' in ich) when it precedes palatal vowels [i, e]: gente, jinete ['çente], [çi'nete]. In Spain, glottal [h] is common in the Canary Islands and Western Andalusian, in the rest of the country [x] alternates with a hardened uvular sound χ sometimes accompanied by uvular vibration.
-In the rest of the Americas, the velar fricative [x] is prevalent. -
This is not true, in Mexico both are use, with geographic preference:
[h] is used on the coasts, both Atlantic and Pacific
[x] is used in continental, hilly, highland regions
So, you have [h] in Acapulco and Tulúm, but [x] in Mexico City and Monterrey.
This is not true, in Mexico both are use, with geographic preference:
[h] is used on the coasts, both Atlantic and Pacific
[x] is used in continental, hilly, highland regions
So, you have [h] in Acapulco and Tulúm, but [x] in Mexico City and Monterrey.
Can you tell me how Benyoncé sings in spanish? . I mean what 'kind of spanish' she pronounces. Of course She doesn't speak it.
http://mx.youtube.com/watch?v=_364VqJ1Gb4
http://mx.youtube.com/watch?v=_364VqJ1Gb4
Some kind of Latin American Spanish with English accent. She did very well, but she had some trouble with b, v, y and d, tipical of English Speakers.
She pronounced luz and voz as lus and vos, something almost impossible in European Spanish.
She pronounced luz and voz as lus and vos, something almost impossible in European Spanish.
However, she doesn't seem to have any problem with the 'r' sound. She pronounces it very well.