I've called her for a year

Hello, I'm an English learner from Japan. I'd like to ask you a question.

Does "I have called (=phoned) her for a year" sound natural to you? A native English-speaker insisted it's natural and it means "I have phoned her regularly/habitually for a year". But I've never learned such usage of the present perfect tense. In school I was taught the construct of <have V-en for PERIOD> can apply to a case where the verb is a stative verb like "live". If the verb is a dynamic verb or one-time verb like "call", we can use only a negative construction like "I haven't called her for a year". Is my understanding wrong?

Thank you in advance.

Hanako

I'd say it means what the native English-speaker claims, but that there might be better ways of phrasing it.

Whether or not this sentence is really "natural" depends somewhat on the context and tone of voice, etc.

I would say "I've been calling her for a year".

I would say "I've been calling her for a year". - Ed

I agree.

Brennus

Thank you. Your reply seems very reasonable.

Hanako

Hanako,

You're welcome. Take care!