yes, in Spanish it is:
Te amo.
Te amo.
Portuguese-Italian-Spanish mutual intelligibility
''Brazil only puts te before amo due to Spanish influence. ''
Not true, Brazilian Portuguese follows classical 15th/16th century usage when even in Portugal proclisys was the norm.
Not true, Brazilian Portuguese follows classical 15th/16th century usage when even in Portugal proclisys was the norm.
^again with the stupid classical nonsense...
If you read brazilian books from the 19th century you'll see how close the language used is to European Portuguese today.
And if you read something from the 15th/16th century, you'll realize what you're saying >____>
If you read brazilian books from the 19th century you'll see how close the language used is to European Portuguese today.
And if you read something from the 15th/16th century, you'll realize what you're saying >____>
Loris: "Piso is used very much in Brazil.
In Shoppings you never see PRIMEIRO ANDAR, SEGUNDO ANDAR,
but only PRIMEIRO PISO, SEGUNDO PISO"
With "chão" I meant "floor" in the general meaning of the substrate we are sitting or standing on, and not the storeys or floors of a building. Othewise I would have written "andar".
Nobody says "primeiro chão" regardless of which portuguese dialect he/she speaks. So I think your post was completely superfluous. Unless you are a non-native speaker without sufficient kowledge (this is most probably the case) of the portuguese language and therefore mixed things up.
The word "piso" has at least three completely different meanings in Spanish:
1. "floor" in general (in Spain and Latinamerica)
2. "floor" or "storey of a building (in Spain and Latinamerica)
3. "apartment" or "flat" (in Spain).
On the other hand, in Portuguese "piso" does not ever have the meaning number 3 ("apartment, "flat").
In Shoppings you never see PRIMEIRO ANDAR, SEGUNDO ANDAR,
but only PRIMEIRO PISO, SEGUNDO PISO"
With "chão" I meant "floor" in the general meaning of the substrate we are sitting or standing on, and not the storeys or floors of a building. Othewise I would have written "andar".
Nobody says "primeiro chão" regardless of which portuguese dialect he/she speaks. So I think your post was completely superfluous. Unless you are a non-native speaker without sufficient kowledge (this is most probably the case) of the portuguese language and therefore mixed things up.
The word "piso" has at least three completely different meanings in Spanish:
1. "floor" in general (in Spain and Latinamerica)
2. "floor" or "storey of a building (in Spain and Latinamerica)
3. "apartment" or "flat" (in Spain).
On the other hand, in Portuguese "piso" does not ever have the meaning number 3 ("apartment, "flat").
In Spanish "Piso" means "Floor", it's that simple, wherever you can use the world "Floor", you could use the word "Piso".
There is a cognate for "chao" in Spanish. In Spanish you use the word "llano" which literally means "meadow" or "pasture" in English. This is related because "LL" is changed to "Ch" in Portuguese and the letter "N" in spanish is removed if we go with normal spelling morphology.
It's true that in modern European Portuguese, we place the reflexive pronoun after the verb, but in classical and Brazilian Portuguese its placed before. (ex. amo-te vs. eu te amo)
With regard to mutual intelligibility, it is very easy for Portuguese speakers to understand and communicate with both Italian and Spanish speakers. I remember my cousin telling me they would often talk with both the Italian and Spanish handball players in a trip to the Canarias. It's a lot harder for those speakers to understand Portuguese because of the strange emphasis we place on our 's' and the French sound of our double 'rr' and the numerous variations of accents (ex. Carros - cars is pronounced carrh-ouge although this varies with each region and there are so many accents). However, if we Italianize or espanholize our words, its quite intelligible.
Another difficulty with Portuguese is that some words are written the same, but with an accent, suddenly develop a new meaning. For example, Por o becomes Pelo, meaning by the means of/by the (non-prepositional), but when it is written pêlo, it means hair. Pais, means parents, but written país it means country.
With regard to mutual intelligibility, it is very easy for Portuguese speakers to understand and communicate with both Italian and Spanish speakers. I remember my cousin telling me they would often talk with both the Italian and Spanish handball players in a trip to the Canarias. It's a lot harder for those speakers to understand Portuguese because of the strange emphasis we place on our 's' and the French sound of our double 'rr' and the numerous variations of accents (ex. Carros - cars is pronounced carrh-ouge although this varies with each region and there are so many accents). However, if we Italianize or espanholize our words, its quite intelligible.
Another difficulty with Portuguese is that some words are written the same, but with an accent, suddenly develop a new meaning. For example, Por o becomes Pelo, meaning by the means of/by the (non-prepositional), but when it is written pêlo, it means hair. Pais, means parents, but written país it means country.
Pêlo/pelo is not longer used (according to the new Spelling act), but
fôrma/forma is introduced anew in Portugal (and stays in Brazil where it's been used although semi-officially for decades thru Aurélio Dic. that promoted it's usage).
fôrma/forma is introduced anew in Portugal (and stays in Brazil where it's been used although semi-officially for decades thru Aurélio Dic. that promoted it's usage).
marciano:"In Spanish "Piso" means "Floor", it's that simple, wherever you can use the world "Floor", you could use the word "Piso"."
This is not true. "Piso" also means "an apartment" or "a flat" in Spain.
This is not true. "Piso" also means "an apartment" or "a flat" in Spain.
I always thought that the relationship between Italian and French is similar to that of Spanish and Portuguese..
The relationship being that the pair share essentially the same vocabulary and structure, but vastly different phonology - with one being a garbled nasalized version of the other.
so essentially: Italian is to french, as spanish is to portuguese.
The relationship being that the pair share essentially the same vocabulary and structure, but vastly different phonology - with one being a garbled nasalized version of the other.
so essentially: Italian is to french, as spanish is to portuguese.
No, Italian is quite different with respect to French as far as grammar is concerned as well. It doesn't share the same degree of similarity with French than Spanish with respect to Portuguese. For example Italian has different plural endings, is a pro drop language, uses enclitic pronouns and so on. Spanish and Portuguese, specially Brazilian Portuguese are the closest national Romance languages . It is possible for a Brazilian to understand a Spanish speaker without translation. Italian and French are not so close.
Even more, French Grammar many times resembles more to Spanish than to Italian. It is the lexical similarity that makes French closer to Italian, but grammatically I'm not sure. What do people on antimoon think?
Italy and France are related as G8 countries (world's major industrialized democracies).
Spain ad Portugal are related as not G8 countries
Spain ad Portugal are related as not G8 countries
Yes, but if you see the GDP per capita:
1. France
2. Spain
3. Italy
4. Portugal
1. France
2. Spain
3. Italy
4. Portugal