"no one" should be written as "noone".

Pat   Sat Dec 20, 2008 9:47 pm GMT
Well, we write "someone", "anyone" and "everyone", so logically it should be "noone".
Pat   Sat Dec 20, 2008 9:48 pm GMT
Also we have "somebody", "anybody", "everybody" and "nobody", so why are we so messy with the ones that end in "-one"?
Milton   Sun Dec 21, 2008 3:28 am GMT
No-one is the old spelling, still used by some Englishmen.

Separation trend to be observed: forever ---> for ever


(Exceptions: to-day ---> today; good-by ---> goodby(e) )
Milton   Sun Dec 21, 2008 3:30 am GMT
''UK writers most often use the two-word phrase “for ever,” whereas Americans strongly prefer the one-word form “forever.” Each nationality is liable to think the other is making a mistake.''

http://www.wsu.edu/~brians/errors/forever.html
Sarmackie   Mon Dec 22, 2008 3:38 pm GMT
In the days of instant messaging and Myspace, it doesn't even seem to matter anymore where the spaces go, as long as most of the words are in the right order.
Another Guest   Mon Dec 22, 2008 11:52 pm GMT
The problem is that "noone" has no orthographical syllable break between the two o's. It would therefore suggest the pronunciation "noon".
Josh   Sat Dec 27, 2008 1:02 pm GMT
"The problem is that "noone" has no orthographical syllable break between the two o's. It would therefore suggest the pronunciation "noon"."

That is a good argument that I would be inclined to make. However, there are words that break the so-called rule such as cooperation or coopt. There is also preemption, which would have been "predemption" if it had been formed according to the rules of the Latin from which it was borrowed (such as English having "redemption" rather than "reemption").
¨¨¨   Sat Dec 27, 2008 1:32 pm GMT
"No one" could be written "noöne", as "to cooperate" may be written "to coöperate", and "zoology" may be written as "zoölogy".
Travis   Sun Dec 28, 2008 12:49 am GMT
My position on the matter is simply why should orthography reflect pronunciation in the first place? What is meant should be understood perfectly well from "noone", and there is no reason why individuals cannot figure out themselves how that is to be pronounced in their native varieties, whatever they might happen to be.
Guest   Sun Dec 28, 2008 8:56 am GMT
Have you gone bonkers Travis?
Travis   Sun Dec 28, 2008 9:31 am GMT
I have not gone bonkers, Guest; I just have given up completely on orthographic reform, and by extension, the very idea that orthography is really supposed to represent speech in any kind of direct fashion. Rather, I have come to recognize that orthography really just needs to represent abstract units of language, whose actual pronunciation if read aloud is largely irrelevant. The idea of what a word represents is what matters, rather than what the word may attempt to imply with respect to pronunciation. Hence in the case of, say, "noone", the issue of whether such may be misread as historical /ˈnuːn/ rather than historical /ˈnoʊ̯wʌn/ does not matter in Real Life.
HappyHippo's   Sun Dec 28, 2008 11:29 am GMT
No-one is old-fashioned British spelling.
Another Guest   Tue Dec 30, 2008 3:24 am GMT
Travis, your response would make sense if "noone" were the common spelling, and I were arguing against it. But the situation is reversed; "noone" is the nonstandard spelling, and this thread was started to argue in favor of it. Neither logic nor tradition offer an argument for it.
Pub Lunch   Thu Jan 01, 2009 2:09 am GMT
Suck my nads lads!!! It is NO-ONE. Now shut it!!!!! Happy NEW YEAR you lot!! Woooooo!!!!
Travis   Thu Jan 01, 2009 8:09 pm GMT
>>Travis, your response would make sense if "noone" were the common spelling, and I were arguing against it. But the situation is reversed; "noone" is the nonstandard spelling, and this thread was started to argue in favor of it. Neither logic nor tradition offer an argument for it.<<

The reason for "noone" is just consistency with other such "no"-forms; no other word in this set of words has a space or hyphen inserted in them.