The fact that 80 to possibly 90% of the adult population of Sweden, Norway and the Netherlands can speak English proficiently, and in many cases perfectly fluent would suggest that the bulk of a society has the mental capacity to learn a second language to a high level.
However, the majority of these people have been exposed to English in some cases nearly as much as their native language since birth, particularly in the Netherlands, so some might argue that in the countries where English proficiency is 80-90%, many of these people could be regarded as "semi-native" in terms of exposure.
However, my question is, in mono-linguistic societies where the inhabitants are really only exposed to their native language, and none other, and never really start any real attempts to study a language until prehaps 15 at the earliest, what percentage of this type of society is incapable of becoming fluent in a language?
Cheers
However, the majority of these people have been exposed to English in some cases nearly as much as their native language since birth, particularly in the Netherlands, so some might argue that in the countries where English proficiency is 80-90%, many of these people could be regarded as "semi-native" in terms of exposure.
However, my question is, in mono-linguistic societies where the inhabitants are really only exposed to their native language, and none other, and never really start any real attempts to study a language until prehaps 15 at the earliest, what percentage of this type of society is incapable of becoming fluent in a language?
Cheers