WHY TOI INSTEAD OF TE?

POURQUOI   Mon Sep 25, 2006 11:26 pm GMT
WHY DO THE FRENCH SAY FOR EXAMPLE:

PEIGNE-TOI

ISTEAD OF

PEIGNE-TE

THIS IS CONFUSING AND



WHY DOES THE VERB COME AFTER? UN EXAMPLE SIMPLE:

JA VAIS ME PEIGNER

INSTEAD OF

JE VAIS PEIGNER ME?




WHY THIS IS MAKING MY LIFE CONFUSING!
Presley.   Tue Sep 26, 2006 1:14 am GMT
Reflexive verbs.

It's a pain, but just get used to it.
Piá   Tue Sep 26, 2006 6:05 am GMT
''WHY DOES THE VERB COME AFTER? UN EXAMPLE SIMPLE:

JA VAIS ME PEIGNER

INSTEAD OF

JE VAIS PEIGNER ME? ''


It's just like in Brazilian:

Eu vou me acordar. = I am going to wake myself up.
Eu não vou me acordar. = I am not going to wake myself up.

the clitic is placed in front of the main verb with which it makes
a pronouncing group:

eu não vou/ me acordar


The same thing in:

Pode se dizer. = One can say
pode / se dizer

Não pode se dizer. = One cannot say.
Não pode/ se dizer
it is latin   Tue Sep 26, 2006 12:29 pm GMT
it is latin derived
JR   Tue Sep 26, 2006 10:08 pm GMT
-----------------------------------------------------------
Why do the French say, for example:
PEIGNE-TOI
Instead of:
PEIGNE-TE (I'm guessing Peinate/Comb yourself)

This is confusing, and:

Why does the verb come after? Un exampel simple:
JA VAIS ME PEIGNER
Instead of:
JE VAIS PEIGNER ME?
------------------------------------------------------------

This has bothered me to. I'm used to:
Yo me voy a peinar (Je me vais au peigner)
And
'Je vais peigner me' also frustrates me, I'm inclined to say
Yo voy a peinarme (Je vais a peigner me)
Guest   Fri Jun 15, 2007 1:46 pm GMT
<<
WHY DO THE FRENCH SAY FOR EXAMPLE:

PEIGNE-TOI

ISTEAD OF

PEIGNE-TE
>>

Because you make a confusion with Spanish...

PEIGNE-MOI