Notional passives

Lazar   Wed Dec 20, 2006 12:49 am GMT
I think a better and more convenient term for this is "the middle voice". (See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_voice .) I agree with M56 that these verbs are indeed active in form and passive in meaning. The concept of the middle voice is simple and very useful; I can't think of any other way to explain these verbs. (As M56 says, we would have to posit the existance of a reflexive pronoun which isn't there.)
Lazar   Wed Dec 20, 2006 12:50 am GMT
"existance" should be "existence" above. ;-)
M56   Wed Dec 20, 2006 7:52 am GMT
<I think a better and more convenient term for this is "the middle voice".>

Might be better.

"An intransitive verb that appears active but expresses a passive action characterizes the English middle voice."
Pos   Wed Dec 20, 2006 7:54 am GMT
And we do have such as:

"This shirt washes itself", which would be like the Greek middle voice.
M56   Wed Dec 20, 2006 9:42 am GMT
Another middle:

The window broke.
Guest   Wed Dec 20, 2006 9:45 am GMT
How about:

"The window broke wind."?
12BA   Wed Dec 20, 2006 9:58 am GMT
"12EC has gone all quiet. ??"

12EC went to bed. I'm in the UK, friend.

I believe you are all guilty of "overintellectualizing" the language processes involved here.

Why can't "this shirt washes well" simply be what it is? That is to say, the active voice.

The fact that the verb can be used this way merely means it has an additional meaning. In this case, the verb "wash" is clearly capable of expressing the meaning "undergoes washing" in the active voice.
Lazar   Wed Dec 20, 2006 10:02 am GMT
I just think the middle voice solution is more elegant. Let's just agree to disagree. ;-)
12BC   Wed Dec 20, 2006 10:06 am GMT
"'This shirt washes itself', which would be like the Greek middle voice."

"This shirt washes itself" is simply a reflexive verb in the active voice.
12BK   Wed Dec 20, 2006 10:29 am GMT
"I just think the middle voice solution is more elegant."

Who does language exist for?

Speakers or Grammarians?

Answer: speakers.

That's because grammarians can't exist without language but language can exist without grammarians.
Lazar   Wed Dec 20, 2006 10:49 am GMT
<<Who does language exist for?

Speakers or Grammarians?

Answer: speakers.>>

That's true.

And I just think that your explanation is more awkward. You're saying that any verb that can appear in this context has to acquire an extra meaning as part of its definition. "To eat" gains the extra possible meaning of "to be eaten", "to read" gains the extra possible meaning of "to be read", and so forth.

I think this is cumbersome. Instead of adding 100 new meanings to 100 separate verbs, it would be much simpler to just have one voice that describes this phenomenon: the middle voice. In my opinion, it would be easier for learners of English to just learn this one simple rule.
Pos   Wed Dec 20, 2006 10:56 am GMT
<I believe you are all guilty of "overintellectualizing" the language processes involved here. >

And you are dumbing it down to the doldrums.
M56   Wed Dec 20, 2006 11:02 am GMT
<Why can't "this shirt washes well" simply be what it is? That is to say, the active voice.>

You need to understand the difference between syntactic, semantic and pragmatic meaning.

As said a thousand times, something can be syntactically active, but have a passive meaning (semantic).
M56   Wed Dec 20, 2006 11:04 am GMT
<Who does language exist for?

Speakers or Grammarians?

Answer: speakers. >

And Lazar is, like you, a speaker. Are you saying that some speakers, such as you, should decide terminology and others may not?
Pos   Wed Dec 20, 2006 11:05 am GMT
<I think this is cumbersome. Instead of adding 100 new meanings to 100 separate verbs, it would be much simpler to just have one voice that describes this phenomenon: the middle voice. In my opinion, it would be easier for learners of English to just learn this one simple rule. >

I'm a learner, and I agree with you.