Too

Jennifer   Sun Aug 26, 2007 11:35 pm GMT
I, too, like peach pie.
or
I like peach pie too.

Which one is correct?
Guest   Sun Aug 26, 2007 11:49 pm GMT
What are you trying to say here?

"I, too, like peach pie" indicates that in addition to someone else, I like peach pie.

"I like peach pie too", could mean the same as the above, but also that in addition to apple pie, I also like peach pie.
Skippy   Mon Aug 27, 2007 2:28 am GMT
Both are correct, but in every day speech one would typically say "I like peach pie too"
furrykef   Mon Aug 27, 2007 11:25 am GMT
On the other hand, if you use "also" instead of "too", it would be more typical to say "I also like peach pie" (note the lack of commas), but you can say "I like peach pie also". I don't know why the word order is often different with these two words, considering that they often mean the same thing...

And you can say "I like peach pie as well", where placing "as well" at the end of the sentence is required.

- Kef
Guest   Mon Aug 27, 2007 8:43 pm GMT
To me as a native speaker, "I like peach pie too" sounds the most natural.
Damian in London SW15   Mon Aug 27, 2007 9:35 pm GMT
I cannot improve on Guest's reply - there's nothing I can add to it, really.

I, too, like peach pie - peaches are nice baked with a crumble topping, too. Too, too divine with whipped cream....ordinary custard is just too boring. So, too, is apple pie....nice with any kind of ice cream, too. I'd go all the way to Tooting to taste it, too.
Andy   Tue Aug 28, 2007 12:15 pm GMT
The second version flows off my tongue better because there are less commas.
Milton   Tue Aug 28, 2007 2:16 pm GMT
Sorry to steal your topic.
But, I've heard TOO /and TWO/ being pronounced as TYEW, is that pronunciation correct? why is that some people insert a glide /Y/ where there isn't any (tyew for two/too, Vancyever for Vancouver...) Is it a new fad or something?
Travis   Tue Aug 28, 2007 3:00 pm GMT
>>Sorry to steal your topic.
But, I've heard TOO /and TWO/ being pronounced as TYEW, is that pronunciation correct? why is that some people insert a glide /Y/ where there isn't any (tyew for two/too, Vancyever for Vancouver...) Is it a new fad or something?<<

You are probably observing two different things here. For starters, the change in "two" is a phonological process that is active in much of North American English. What it is is that back vowels break into level diphthongs after coronals (consonants articulated with the front of your tongue, for laypersons) or are simply centralized. These diphthongs are central to back or, for /u/, may be front to back. In my dialect such diphthongs do not generally entail any loss of rounding, but in many dialects these diphthongs have an unrounded onglide. As a result, one may hear /u/ realized as [1_^u] or more extremely [i_^u] or [ju] after coronals (that is, /t/, /d/, /tS/, /dZ/, /s/, /z/, /T/, /D/, /n/, /r/ in most dialects, and /l/ in many dialects). This is likely what you are hearing with "two". My own dialect would not have this, though, but rather would realize /u/ as [}_^u] or [y_^u] in such cases.

As for "Vancouver", that is probably a less widespread sound change, which is simply the fronting and unrounding of mid and high rounded back vowels which is occurring in some English dialects. You are probably hearing the fronting and partial unrounding of the vowels in them as something like /i_^u/, but these are not actually diphthongs.
Gabriel   Tue Aug 28, 2007 4:06 pm GMT
Could the glide in "Vancouver" be related to the case of "coupon" with its two variant pronunciations?