Maybe I'm not the only one to find Polish spelling a little bit confusing and intricate...
Allright, I understand that there's a reason for using for instance "?" or 'RZ' which have an important etymological value.
But did the Poles ever consider introducing the quite simpler and more sensible system of diacritics used in Czech or Croatian? (instead of the 'CZ'/'SZ' or even 'SZCZ' and other consonant clusters)
Another question: how come there is a 'W' for 'V' in the Polish alphabet, and no 'V' at all?
Thanks for any information you can provide!
Allright, I understand that there's a reason for using for instance "?" or 'RZ' which have an important etymological value.
But did the Poles ever consider introducing the quite simpler and more sensible system of diacritics used in Czech or Croatian? (instead of the 'CZ'/'SZ' or even 'SZCZ' and other consonant clusters)
Another question: how come there is a 'W' for 'V' in the Polish alphabet, and no 'V' at all?
Thanks for any information you can provide!