Why d(English)/dt > d(Spanish)/dt, t E [1500AD,now]?

Guest   Thu Dec 06, 2007 8:04 am GMT
Why is the time rate of change of English greater than the time rate of change of Spanish in the last 500 years? What affects the speed of evolution of a language? Early modern English is more distant compared to Spanish of the same epoch.
Guest   Thu Dec 06, 2007 8:33 am GMT
on fact is that French completely changed the language. Another fact is the usage of the Latin Alphabet and words. Another is the...
guest   Thu Dec 06, 2007 12:31 pm GMT
It's changing so fast that I can't even understand the title of this thread!
Guest   Fri Dec 07, 2007 10:25 pm GMT
I'm waiting for informative discussion.
furrykef   Fri Dec 07, 2007 11:50 pm GMT
<< It's changing so fast that I can't even understand the title of this thread! >>

I believe it has to do with calculus. I'm only acquainted with calculus in the vaguest fashion, though.
Guest   Fri Dec 07, 2007 11:58 pm GMT
Because complexity of Spanish phonetics is x and that of English is 2x.
Guest   Sat Dec 08, 2007 12:41 am GMT
For those who don't understand Leibniz notation the question is: Why does English evolve faster than Spanish?