Which country is the most Latin: France, Spain or Italy?

Guest   Wed Nov 19, 2008 10:01 am GMT
Please explain your answer.
Gerhard   Wed Nov 19, 2008 10:06 am GMT
Italy, because within it is contained the only entity where Latin is official - the Vatican. You don't get much more Latin than that.

As for the others, I don't know. I don't suppose it would not be very hard though to find statistics on the number of students enrolled in Latin courses in those countries.
Poll   Wed Nov 19, 2008 1:26 pm GMT
Depends on what you mean by the "most Latin". Please elaborate a bit.
Guest   Wed Nov 19, 2008 3:07 pm GMT
<<Italy, because within it is contained the only entity where Latin is official - the Vatican. You don't get much more Latin than that.>>

Vatican and Italy are two different countries.
svealander   Wed Nov 19, 2008 3:10 pm GMT
they probably mean the most latinate, the one that is derived most of all from latin
Itchy knee   Wed Nov 19, 2008 4:26 pm GMT
I'd vote for Italy.
Mighty Magyar   Wed Nov 19, 2008 4:46 pm GMT
It's Hungary.
Eheu! Not this again.   Wed Nov 19, 2008 5:38 pm GMT
" Guest Sat Mar 24, 2007 3:30 pm GMT
Eheu! Not this again. "
Niko   Wed Nov 19, 2008 6:11 pm GMT
I would say Italy as it contains the civilization from which Latin came from: Ancient Rome. France may be next because Gaul was so important to the Empire (especially to Julius Caesar).
Buddy   Wed Nov 19, 2008 6:34 pm GMT
I would vote Italy as well, as they are the "real" Latins (in culture, identity, location, origin, ethnicity, etc).

French and Spansiards only speak a form of latin language and have *adopted* the above (i.e. "Latin wannabe's"; "Latin wish-I-were's"), but they are not the real thing.
Pal   Wed Nov 19, 2008 7:18 pm GMT
So does that make Americans "British wannabes" then?
Caspian   Wed Nov 19, 2008 7:58 pm GMT
<< So does that make Americans "British wannabes" then? >>

That goes without saying :) lol
eastlander   Wed Nov 19, 2008 8:00 pm GMT
French language has celtic substrate and Germanic (Frankish)superstrate.Spanish language has Iberic (Basque) and Arabic substrate,some borrowings from Germanic (Westgoths) languages.Italian language is the most Latin-plural endings are -i in both languages.Germanic borrowings in Italian language are too,but in French and Spanish plural endings are -s or -os,-as;like in Low German (-s) or Old English,Old Saxon,Old Frisian (-as).
anti nonsenses   Wed Nov 19, 2008 8:26 pm GMT
<<Spanish language has Iberic (Basque) and Arabic substrate>>

Wrong. Arabic is considered a superstrate because its influence is reduced to loanwords. A language is substrate of another when people who spoke the former began to spoke to later and thus leaved a big impact on it. This is the case of Basque but not Arabic .Also Iberian Celtic languages are another substrate of Spanish .
I'm a guest   Wed Nov 19, 2008 8:28 pm GMT
all of them are latin in their own way. They all started from the same point, and all evoluated in their own ways, with their own geographic and historic relations