Please explain your answer.
Which country is the most Latin: France, Spain or Italy?
Italy, because within it is contained the only entity where Latin is official - the Vatican. You don't get much more Latin than that.
As for the others, I don't know. I don't suppose it would not be very hard though to find statistics on the number of students enrolled in Latin courses in those countries.
As for the others, I don't know. I don't suppose it would not be very hard though to find statistics on the number of students enrolled in Latin courses in those countries.
<<Italy, because within it is contained the only entity where Latin is official - the Vatican. You don't get much more Latin than that.>>
Vatican and Italy are two different countries.
Vatican and Italy are two different countries.
they probably mean the most latinate, the one that is derived most of all from latin
I would say Italy as it contains the civilization from which Latin came from: Ancient Rome. France may be next because Gaul was so important to the Empire (especially to Julius Caesar).
I would vote Italy as well, as they are the "real" Latins (in culture, identity, location, origin, ethnicity, etc).
French and Spansiards only speak a form of latin language and have *adopted* the above (i.e. "Latin wannabe's"; "Latin wish-I-were's"), but they are not the real thing.
French and Spansiards only speak a form of latin language and have *adopted* the above (i.e. "Latin wannabe's"; "Latin wish-I-were's"), but they are not the real thing.
<< So does that make Americans "British wannabes" then? >>
That goes without saying :) lol
That goes without saying :) lol
French language has celtic substrate and Germanic (Frankish)superstrate.Spanish language has Iberic (Basque) and Arabic substrate,some borrowings from Germanic (Westgoths) languages.Italian language is the most Latin-plural endings are -i in both languages.Germanic borrowings in Italian language are too,but in French and Spanish plural endings are -s or -os,-as;like in Low German (-s) or Old English,Old Saxon,Old Frisian (-as).
<<Spanish language has Iberic (Basque) and Arabic substrate>>
Wrong. Arabic is considered a superstrate because its influence is reduced to loanwords. A language is substrate of another when people who spoke the former began to spoke to later and thus leaved a big impact on it. This is the case of Basque but not Arabic .Also Iberian Celtic languages are another substrate of Spanish .
Wrong. Arabic is considered a superstrate because its influence is reduced to loanwords. A language is substrate of another when people who spoke the former began to spoke to later and thus leaved a big impact on it. This is the case of Basque but not Arabic .Also Iberian Celtic languages are another substrate of Spanish .
all of them are latin in their own way. They all started from the same point, and all evoluated in their own ways, with their own geographic and historic relations