Peruvian Spanish

Mark   Wed Jul 15, 2009 9:37 pm GMT
The final S's are pronounced in most of Mexico, but along the eastern coast in places like Veracruz and Yucatan, they are sometimes aspirated similar to other areas around the Caribean.
Cohteno   Thu Jul 16, 2009 12:30 am GMT
But that's been gradually changing for many years thanks to influence from the media, so even there people know that they should pronounce them, it'd say more than 50% of the state of Veracruz now pronounces the S's.
Domine   Thu Jul 16, 2009 5:26 am GMT
">>>* Será publicado hasta fines de año. (that is, 'It will not be published until the end of the year.')
* Cierran hasta las nueve. ('They don't close until 9 o'clock.')
* Hasta que tomé la píldora se me quitó el dolor. ('Until I took the pill, the pain did not go away.')

&

* ¿Qué tan graves son los daños? (Whereas in Spain the question would be posed as "¿Cómo son de graves los daños?") (How serious are the damages?)
* ¿Qué tan bueno cocinero eres? (How good of a cook are you?)
* ¿Qué tanto cuesta? (As opposed to "¿Cuánto cuesta?") (How much/many is it?) <<<"


The inclusion of -no- (i.e. no será, no cierran, no hasta que etc.) gives a uncertainty and questioning about the outcome; moreover, the sentence annotates the subjunctive clause - which upon hearing I would think he or she is dubious and probably the addition of 'no' is a misconception of it, simply. I see you have copied and pasted a Wikipedia article discerning the differences from the Continental Spanish from the Mexican Spanish, which most of the time is not accurate in its entirety, as there are always exceptions and people who do not follow suit.

In addition the second one is more or less accurate.

¿Cuán graves son los daños? = Castilian Spanish
¿Qué tan graves son los daños? = Mexican Spanish
¿Cuánto cuesta? = Standard
¿Qué tanto cuesta? = Mexican Spanish?

For the reason that I have heard both used interchangeably in Mexico; cuán used more with more educated Mexicans. Personally I have never heard the following: "¿Cómo son de graves los daños?" ;however, it still makes sense to me, as the gist is declared but worded differently.
&#1078;&#1072;&am   Thu Jul 16, 2009 5:31 am GMT
Is cuán normal in Peninsular Spanish? Or is it literary? If it is literary then what is used in everyday speech instead?
¡Cuán grande es cuán!   Thu Jul 16, 2009 5:20 pm GMT
Cuán is not normal in Spain. it's literary, yet you can hear it in exclamative sentences to emphasise something , for instance:
¡Cuán guapa es la condenada! but we usually say ¡Qué guapa es!.

and also we indistinctly say
¿Cómo son de graves los daños? = ¿Cómo de graves son los daños?
Usuaire   Fri Jul 17, 2009 12:19 pm GMT
Half of the people of Peru speak Quechua and Aymara as their native language. So don't make a big fuss about Peruvian Spanish because it will disappear in favor of these two languages now that they are elevated into official status, used in broadcasting and medium of instructions.

Most of the "mestizos" in Peru are actually "cholos" who are pure Amerindians and claim that they have Spanish blood.

In the past the, the real mestizos deny their Amerindian ancestry. But not anymore. Now that the tide has been turned in favor of the Amerindians and are now fiercely asserting their original language and culture, the real mestizos will soon follow in adopting Quechua and Aymara and eventually, the Peruvians with pure Spanish extraction would follow. The scenario would be the same as that in Paraguay where Guarani is spoken by over 90% of the people as their native language.
???   Fri Jul 17, 2009 12:43 pm GMT
Thanx ¡Cuán grande es cuán! for the explanation
Peruvian   Wed Jul 22, 2009 12:25 am GMT
You can replace TÚ or TI with VOS. "Contigo" is also replaced by "con vos", sounding like "kombós".

The conjugation?
Just replace the final -R of the infinitive with an -S, and retain the stress by adding a tilde.

E.g.

tener > tenés
poder > podés
querer > querés
jugar > jugás
venir > venís
escribir > escribís
etc.
Cha cha cha   Wed Jul 22, 2009 2:15 am GMT
Usuaire es un francesillo homosexual.
Il Ce   Wed Jul 22, 2009 1:06 pm GMT
[QUOTE]
You can replace TÚ or TI with VOS. "Contigo" is also replaced by "con vos", sounding like "kombós".

The conjugation?
Just replace the final -R of the infinitive with an -S, and retain the stress by adding a tilde.

E.g.

tener > tenés
poder > podés
querer > querés
jugar > jugás
venir > venís
escribir > escribís
etc.
[/QUOTE]

Yes. That's how they speak in South America. It's actually quite easy.
Addition: You can form the command by dropping the final -S.

So:

tener > tenés > Tené!
jugar > jugás > Jugá!
cerrar > cerrás > Cerrá!
mirar > mirás > Mirá!
esperar > esperás > Esperá!
venir > venís > Vení!
escribir > escribís > Escribí!
abrir > abrís > Abrí!
etc.

Theoretically 'poder' and 'querer' would become 'Podé!' and 'Queré!'. It's hard for me to imagine when you'd use that though. Perhaps something like "Queréme!", meaning "Love me!", which sounds a bit abusive. lol
Usero   Thu Jul 23, 2009 2:49 am GMT
<<Yes. That's how they speak in South America.>>

NOT South America, just Argentina and Uruguay.
Guest   Sun Jul 26, 2009 4:40 pm GMT
Personally, I find Chilean and Argentinian Spanish best .
Mexican sounds too Gypsy-like and staccato-rifle gun, Argentinian is so melodic just like Italian.

Argentinian Spanish is one of the ugliest accents in Latin American the pronounce the "LL" like Sh, skip a lot of of words in their pronunciation, and make an annoying emphasis at the end of some vocals (in an incorrect way) like: correté, moveté, podés, etc. which sounds weird and ugly to other native Spanish speakers. The tone it's overall a disgusting mix between Italian and Spanish. Chilean Spanish is more accurate and less disgusting than Argentinian.

I do not recommend learning the accent from Argentinian, learn any other it doesn't not matter from which country just not from Argentina because if you have the Argentinian accent many native speakers will look down on you as Argentinians have a very negative image among Latin Americans.
SH8   Sun Jul 26, 2009 6:13 pm GMT
You should not only focus on which one you like better, but which one is the more correct.
Sho   Tue Jul 28, 2009 1:38 pm GMT
Who knows what's correct anyways?
Guest   Tue Jul 28, 2009 5:28 pm GMT
I would say that correct Spanish dialects are those that:

don't drop letters like final S's and such
H is aspired
LL and Y are pronounced differently
intonation is flat, not melodious
LE, LA, LO are used properly