I'll vs All

Just trying to be helpful, Tommo, not arid nor acid. "Confuse" is not the word. Using the wrong word can cause confusion or worse.

I used "confuse" in the sense of: "make (issue, distinction) obscure", as listed in the OED I have. It seems that usage is unknown to some, so I have re-written the sentence:

"I wonder if those who pronounce them similarly also make obscure the distinction between "wile" and wall"."

The question is why someone who pronounces "I'll" and "all" similarly does not make "wile" and "wall" homophonous. Comparing "to", "two" and "too" is no comparison at all, as they are homophones to everyone (and have the same vowel).

I'd still like to know why some <make obscure the distinction between> I and A in the words in question.

I also found it interesting that someone who apparently also pronounces the words "I'll" and "all" differently, chose to chide me for a perceived lack of knowledge of the meaning of a word.

<<The question is why someone who pronounces "I'll" and "all" similarly does not make "wile" and "wall" homophonous.>>

And the answer would be that "I'll" is a very commonly used function word and exhibits a very strong tendency of diphthong-to-monophthong reduction (as evidenced in my dialect, Jim's dialect, Travis' dialect, etc), and in some dialects (such as Mike's) this reduced form may be homophonous with "all". "Wile" does not undergo this reduction, so in Mike's dialect it remains distinct from "wall".