Comparative analysis : Russian and Spanish are similar!?
Russian = Spanish = English
noch = la noche = night
luna = la luna = moon
i = y = and
ja = jo = I
subota = el sabado = saturday
pljazha = la playa = beach
butilka = la botella = flask
kazhdij = cada = every (each one)
datj = dar = to give
banja (a place for washing) = banar (verb) = to wash
etc.
Any comments?
There are a lot of words in Russian that remind me of words in other languages. Tomato, for example, is "pamidor" in Russian and "pomodoro" in Italian. Perhaps tomatoes were exported to Russia from Italy. Even "tomato" seems close to "pomodoro" to me. I don't know how other people think about this. Maybe my lazy brain says "That's close enough-we've got a match."
Instead of asking how difficult a language is, I'd like to have a calculator of lexical similarity for reference. For example, one could plug in all the languages one already knows well to find out how much vocabulary is shared in the target language.
Russian and SPanish use same structures.
No gusta matar.
Mne nravitsa ubivat.
I think we can conclude, they are practically the same language, disguised for political gains.
Some of those could be loan words -- not necessarily direct ones. Words like "i" and "ja" and "datj" are likely to be coincidental. There are many, many cases like these among the world's languages.
- Kef
? why are you so surprised? Russian and Spanish are Indo-European languages after all, Russian looks like latin and Sanskrit, and German and Baltik languages, nothing weird here.
and "Dar" Дар means "gift" actually.
Помидор pomidor is a "spoiled" french word "pomme d'amour"
Пляж plyazh is simply french loan "plage" word which came in 19th century probably when French was popular among aristocracy.
? why are you so surprised? Russian and Spanish are Indo-European languages after all, Russian looks like latin and Sanskrit, and German and Baltik languages, nothing weird here.
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Excuse me, I didnt get your point...Russian looks somehow like Sanskrit, indeed, but what Germanic and Baltic languages have to do here? Please explain!
Another examples:
Russian = Spanish = English
more = el Mar = sea
tvoi = tuyo = your (masc)
tvaja = tuya = your (fem)
Indeed, knowledge of Russian helps me to understand & learn Spanish.
>>but what Germanic and Baltic languages have to do here? Please explain!
all Indo-European languages looks like each other, it's simply, especially for Baltic ones, some linguists fight for Balto-Slavic group and they have reasons for that.
Just serch in google for balto-slavic languages.
As for Germanic ones, their grammar (of contemprory german, old English, Goth and pro-Germanic language) looks like Russian, or let's say Slavic, and good linguist knows that the true ties between languages are defined by grammar resemblance.
Помидор pomidor is a "spoiled" french word "pomme d'amour"
I see you used "pomidor"...I thought about using "o" instead of "a" but I've seen it transliterated (?)/put into the roman/latin alphabet with "a"...
My grandmother used to say that a long time ago people thought you would die if you ate tomatoes-maybe even that suicidal lovers ate them.
Tomato leaves are poisonous-so maybe that's where the myth originated.
Pomme d'amour-It makes sense.
Thanks for your comments.
Latin / Russian / Spanish / English
mare = more = el Mar = sea
tvvm / tvvs = tvoi = tuyo = your (masc)
tva(m) = tvaja = tuya = your (fem)
ivlivs = ivliune = julian / julio = julian
etc.
Russian retains classical-Latin traits, however, how would the words be pronounced? In Spanish it may look a bit different, but it's still pronounced similarly. Russian looks and sounds cool :)
Actually...most the examples mentioned above are borrowed words.
Yes is true they are all IE languages, but that doesn't mean that similar words are related directly.
However, something that has to be said is that Early Russian and Vulgar Latin had a lot of contact with each other. In fact, the Byzantine Empire, or as it was first called...The Eastern Roman Empire, is what made Russia what it is. They helped the first Russians fight the Tartars, and it was common practice for Russian royalty to take Byzantine brides to strengthen their connections.
Also, you have to be careful when comparing grammars. Russian and Latin are considered "grammar free" languages because of the use of case inflections to denote grammar function. Modern Romance langauges like Spanish are not. What does this mean?
In Russian and Latin, the sentence "john drank water" and "water drank John" mean the exact same thing. They add inflections to the end of the words to tell you which word is the subject, and which word is the object of the sentence. This is not true in Italic languages, and especially not true in modern Romance languages.
If you want to say "john drank water" in Spanish you have to say "juan bebió el agua." Otherwise it is not correct. If you said, "el agua bebió juan"...you would have a very confused Spanish speaker.
it would actually just be juan bebio agua" there's not point in saying "el", it sounds unnatural.
Sorry...I know that.
I sent my post without checking it over. I apologize to any Spanish fans :-)
<<it would actually just be juan bebio agua" there's not point in saying "el", it sounds unnatural. >>
Not really, there is a difference between both sentences but they are valid as in English.
Y cuando Juan bebió *el* agua... - and when John drank *the* water...
Entonces Juan bebió agua... - Then John drank water...
<<"el agua bebió juan"...you would have a very confused Spanish speaker. >>
Not really, although it's not the standard way to speak. This structure is more exclusive to literature and poetry.
"Su corazón robó el soldado..."
"El agua bebió Juan apresurado..."