Does accent have anything to do with language groups?

Wingyellow   Thursday, August 14, 2003, 23:50 GMT
I gave my fellow Hong Konger to listen to Tom's recording.
1. They are surprised.
2. They do not believe.
3. They start to explain that Polish and English are both Indo-European.

I totally disagree!
Richard Li   Friday, August 15, 2003, 00:29 GMT
The thing about English and Polish being both Indo-European is all bosh. Well, I meantersay that they ARE both Indo-European but that has nothing to do with speaking good English.
Karen   Friday, August 15, 2003, 01:39 GMT

I agree that it has something to do with Tom's native language.

Due to we are Asian, it's easier for us to learn (imitiate) other Asian language. I have learned Thai and Vietnamese (very simple conversation), the tutor was very surprised on my pronunication.

I lived few years in Europe, most people there can speak 3-4 European languages, it really has something to do with their native language as their ears get use to those sounds.
me   Friday, August 15, 2003, 03:24 GMT
where's the Tom's record after all? I wanna listen to this as well but I didn't find it in the site!
Karen   Friday, August 15, 2003, 07:19 GMT
I am just trying to share with you.

1. After "due to", we use a noun or noun phrase. You should have used "because" or "due to the fact that".

2. You should have used "a few" instead of "few".

3. Several cases of misusing punctuations.
Hythloday   Thursday, August 21, 2003, 16:07 GMT
Richard, what do you mean by "good English"? I'm sure you will have gathered by now that there many different Englishes, and that they are all equally good. If any form of English was not up to the task, then I can assure you that it would no longer be used.