doubt in grammar

Yoosuf   Monday, August 25, 2003, 16:14 GMT
Please clarify which of the following sentences are correct
If roman law is unpalatable to you
if roman law is unpalatable for you

if it is inconvenient for you
if ti is inconvenient to you
Julian   Monday, August 25, 2003, 20:59 GMT
As all are incomplete sentences, it's unclear where you're going with your ideas and it's not so obvious which are correct. But I'll give it a shot:

"If Roman law is unpalatable to you" sounds correct (although the use of "unpalatable" is a bit odd -- it isn't wrong, it's just not a commonly used word outside of the culinary arts).

"If it is inconvenient for you" would be my pick.
Ben   Thursday, August 28, 2003, 09:51 GMT

Both **can** be correct. It depends entirely on the context of the statement.

'Roman law is unpalatable to you' would mean that you found it personally distasteful. It's being 'unpalatable for you' is a far less commonly used statement, and is slightly archaic. However, it is still technically correct if used to imply a less personal connection. For example, if you were experiencing Roman law and didn't like it, it would be unpalatable to you. However, if you were learning about it (and therefore at a distance from it), it *could* be unpalatable for you.

The 'inconvenient' question can also work both ways. Something is 'inconvenient to' when it is personal (when it is inconvenient to you or me). However, something is 'inconvenient for' some other third person (when it is inconvenient for him or her).

Hope that helps!
Antonio   Thursday, August 28, 2003, 12:24 GMT
Ben is right.

The use of ´to´is commoner today, but that doesn´t mean that it is more correct than ´for´.