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Why "V" is "B" in Spanish ?
Why in Spanish V is pronunced B?
VIVO is (BIBO) VICTOR is (BICTOR) VINO is (BINO) I have heard some spanish speakers mostly singing still pronuncing V and not B why is that? BRACIAS BVB
This a legacy of Iberian pre-Indo-European languages, of which only survives Basque.
Basque has plenty of B's but lacks the voiced labiodental V. Which is very weird IMHO.
Definitely BENI BIDI BICI is right. It seems that in Roman times the Spanish already pronounced V like B when they spoke Latin. Thus it may be due to a Prerroman substratum that had its influx in the Spanish language as well. It may be non Indoeuropean or not, because in North Portugal this feature is also present. The Romans noticed it and said :
"Beati Hispani quibus bibere vivere est" Happy Spaniards form whom to live is the same as to drink. (Bibere = to drink , vivere= to live). Viva el vino y las mujeres!
It's weird, sometimes they pronounce it: bamos, sometimes vamos, wamos
sometimes it's bibir, sometimes biwir, wiwir, vivir. both b, and v, I've heard them being pronounced as either b, v or w
B and V don't correspond to different phonemes, but the pronounciation of these can be quite random. Once I noticed that in some Andalusian accents they pronounce B like V: "vueno".
ricky martin sings VIDA LOCA not BIDA LOCA.
julio eglesias sings VOLVER not BOLBER why?
<<The Romans noticed it and said :
"Beati Hispani quibus bibere vivere est" >> Apparently this saying comes from the Renaissance, it was unknown to Romans http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=997178
"Depende del gusto del individuo"
so you mean its ok either way? from what i can hear musicians like the "V" not the "b" "V" is Vibrant "B" is borring julio iglesias (not ricky) sings and says every "V". Very strange!
<<It's weird, sometimes they pronounce it: bamos, sometimes vamos, wamos
sometimes it's bibir, sometimes biwir, wiwir, vivir. >> Spanish speakers in the United States will often pronounce SPanish 'v' as an English 'v', due to English influence.
Very tricky question. From my experience educated Spaniards always distinguish between "v" and "b" in all areas of Spain. What changes from one to another is how much they exaggerate the "v". But the difference is there. As for the Iberian substratum it's not clear to me since in most of the peninsula, except for the East, before the Romans the languages spoken were Celt-Iberian or related dialects.
The tendency of /b/ becoming /v/ is pretty common... Irish has /b/ morphed into /v/ in some situations, Greek and Hebrew at one point had /b/ become /v/ as well.
I do not pronounce v like b or b like v. What happens is that the original phonemes /v/ and /b/have merged (at least in the kind of Spanish I speak, but I suspect this is true for most varieties).
The actual realization of the single phoneme represented in writing by b or v can be: 1) [B]. A bilabial approximant. This occurs typically between vowels. NABO [naBo] CLAVO [klaBo]. I have this realization sometimes word-initially, but I don't think this is typical of most speakers. 2) [b]. Typically after /m/ /n/ (in the sequences MB and NV). CAMBIO [kambjo] ENVIAR [embja4] ([envja4] is overly careful, deliberate language). [b] also occurs at the beginning of words. VAMOS [bamos] BIEN [bjen]. 3) [v]. Especially as a result of the valiant but vain efforts teachers make in primary schools, sometimes a word spelt with V gets [v]. I notice that I tend to pronounce OBVIO as [ovio]. I wonder how a native English speaker deals with [B]. Does (s)he map it onto /b/ or /v/ (or perhaps /w/)? |