Did all languages from the same language develop?

Hermit   Mon Jul 14, 2008 10:13 am GMT
Did all languages from the same language develop? Did the people who first out of Africa moved already language have? Or did they out of Africa move and then their languages afterwards independently develop?

The former is true my intuition tells me, however, if the other way it had been, would there a noticeable difference be? Could languages in an entirely different direction have developed?
PARISIEN   Mon Jul 14, 2008 11:32 am GMT
<<did they out of Africa move and then their languages afterwards independently develop? The former is true my intuition tells me, however, if the other way it had been, would there a noticeable difference be? >>

-- I think there wouldn't be any difference.
Ask Noam Chomsky.

For some reason all human languages consist of nouns, verbs, and adjectives/adverbs.
Entities + actions + predicates.
Concepts can overlap to all categories (Chinese, English) but a language built otherwise is flat out unthinkable.
Shrey   Mon Jul 14, 2008 11:38 am GMT
I've read somewhere that all the races were first born from the Khoisian people in Africa who speak the Khoisian group languages. It's one of the most complicated languages with 30-90 phonemes and about 35-50 click sounds/letters!!!! Imagine that.....and apparently these were the first people to migrate everywhere else in the World...so they're the origin of all the races and all languages....
Guest   Mon Jul 14, 2008 12:10 pm GMT
Shrey, if I were you, I wouldn't make such claims.
Guest   Mon Jul 14, 2008 1:52 pm GMT
<<Did all languages from the same language develop? Did the people who first out of Africa moved already language have? Or did they out of Africa move and then their languages afterwards independently develop?

The former is true my intuition tells me, however, if the other way it had been, would there a noticeable difference be? Could languages in an entirely different direction have developed? >>

OK, Yoda. Doing this intentionally to sound German are we?
Shrey   Mon Jul 14, 2008 8:51 pm GMT
Hey guest, I'm making no such claims. I'm just mentioning what I read. Here's a link that also supports my "claim":

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c246fZ-7z1w
K. T.   Tue Jul 15, 2008 5:54 am GMT
Kelen (with a long- over the first e) has no verbs. It was the creation of Sylvia Sotomayor when she was an undergrad at the university of Berkeley (hmm, I wonder where she got the name now) in the linguistics dept. That's the story anyway. I'm not keen on made-up languages.