Yes, but I rarely, if ever, hear it.
A Spanish question.
Previous page Pages: 1 2
Also, it just sounds really lazy to say Le when Lo would be the most appropriate and obvious choice.
Also, it just sounds really lazy to say Le when Lo would be the most appropriate and obvious choice.
This is a nonsense
Study a good grammar of Spanish!
This is a nonsense
Study a good grammar of Spanish!
<<Exactly verde. It sounds weird only for Spaniards because almost no one in Latin America uses "le" >>
If you don't use "le" and use "lo" all the time it's wrong as well and it's called "loismo". People who speak proper Spanish use both "le", "la", and "lo" depending on the case. Anyway I don't understan what do you mean, do you really say that nobody in America uses "le" at any circumstace? Then do you say for example: "Lo di un regalo" instead of "Le di un regalo"? Man that would be horrible and much better than subtle leismo like in the case of "Le ayudé a encontrar trabajo".
If you don't use "le" and use "lo" all the time it's wrong as well and it's called "loismo". People who speak proper Spanish use both "le", "la", and "lo" depending on the case. Anyway I don't understan what do you mean, do you really say that nobody in America uses "le" at any circumstace? Then do you say for example: "Lo di un regalo" instead of "Le di un regalo"? Man that would be horrible and much better than subtle leismo like in the case of "Le ayudé a encontrar trabajo".
Lelalo, as I said, in LA we do use all three, here are some examples:
Latin American:
Le di un regalo (I gave a gift TO him/her)
+Lo has visto? (Have you seen him?) | La has visto? (Have you seen her?)
Spaniard:
Le di un regalo (I gave a gift TO him/her)
+Le has visto? (Have you seen him/her?) [that's leismo]
*Latinos would also say "le has visto..." but when you're putting something else, like "Le has visto las uñas?" (Have you seen his/her nails?) but if we are refering to the person itself, then you obviously have to use lo/la.
Latin American:
Le di un regalo (I gave a gift TO him/her)
+Lo has visto? (Have you seen him?) | La has visto? (Have you seen her?)
Spaniard:
Le di un regalo (I gave a gift TO him/her)
+Le has visto? (Have you seen him/her?) [that's leismo]
*Latinos would also say "le has visto..." but when you're putting something else, like "Le has visto las uñas?" (Have you seen his/her nails?) but if we are refering to the person itself, then you obviously have to use lo/la.
<<Le di un regalo (I gave a gift TO him/her)
+Le has visto? (Have you seen him/her?) [that's leismo] >>
In Spain and nobody says "le has visto" to refer to a woman but "la has visto". "Le" wether properly used or not is always masculine in European Spanish.
+Le has visto? (Have you seen him/her?) [that's leismo] >>
In Spain and nobody says "le has visto" to refer to a woman but "la has visto". "Le" wether properly used or not is always masculine in European Spanish.
<<In Spain and nobody says "le has visto>>
Really?... I've heard tons of people from Spain using Le for everything whether male or female, such as "no le conozco", "le vi", "saludarles", etc. instead of "no lo/la conozco", "lo/la vi" and "saludarlos/saludarlas".
And in case it is the way you're saying, then you guys would be using a weird mix of Leismo and not at the same time.
Really?... I've heard tons of people from Spain using Le for everything whether male or female, such as "no le conozco", "le vi", "saludarles", etc. instead of "no lo/la conozco", "lo/la vi" and "saludarlos/saludarlas".
And in case it is the way you're saying, then you guys would be using a weird mix of Leismo and not at the same time.
<<*Latinos would also say "le has visto..." but when you're putting something else, like "Le has visto las uñas?" (Have you seen his/her nails?) but if we are refering to the person itself, then you obviously have to use lo/la. >>
That's right Verde. I know we use all three, but we use it like in the example you gave. We are less ambiguous and more specific when referring to a person. And also, like you said, we don't use Le for EVERYTHING like the Spaniards. They even use it in their songs so they use it for most everything.
<<In Spain and nobody says "le has visto" to refer to a woman but "la has visto". "Le" wether properly used or not is always masculine in European Spanish.>>
Well, the other day I was reading a page from the RAE stating that Le can only be used as masculine singular.
That's right Verde. I know we use all three, but we use it like in the example you gave. We are less ambiguous and more specific when referring to a person. And also, like you said, we don't use Le for EVERYTHING like the Spaniards. They even use it in their songs so they use it for most everything.
<<In Spain and nobody says "le has visto" to refer to a woman but "la has visto". "Le" wether properly used or not is always masculine in European Spanish.>>
Well, the other day I was reading a page from the RAE stating that Le can only be used as masculine singular.
Guest,
You're right about the usage of Le as masculine(singular). I read your post too quickly.
You're right about the usage of Le as masculine(singular). I read your post too quickly.
Previous page Pages: 1 2