The most loneliest day of my life
In their latest album System of a Down sing ''The most loneliest day of my life''. As far as I know you can't use ''most'' with the superlative form of an adjective. Does it mean System have made a mistake or maybe they just wanted to emphasize how lonely they felt one day?
It's technically incorrect, but I hear people saying that sort of thing all the time. It's almost certainly been used deliberately.
<<or maybe they just wanted to emphasize how lonely they felt one day>>
This is most likely the case.
<< most loneliest >>
superlatives; degrees of comparison - common!, we all learnt that in nursery school, you (anyone) and I know we can't use both!!.
But I think its becoming very common these days, and acceptable (when used deliberatley) "most ugliest," etc. Who knows, it could be standardized.
Two superlatives are superfluous. Most ungrammaticaliest.
I've got that album.
System of a Down are Armenian Americans. I'm not sure of English is their first language.
Thanks for all answers. Yes, given that their lyrics are sometimes the most difficultiest :) texts in the history of American music I think English is their first language.
You can use either the inflected: "The lonliest day of my life" or the more analaytical, Chinese-like "The most lonely day of my life" however to say "The most loneliest day of my life" is an example of confusion.<<
Just for the record, majk, there are many rules that exist in everyday speech in many dialects which may differ significantly from those in the formal literary language. For example, "most loneliest" is definitely something that some native speakers would say, whatever some English teachers may say about "correctness" aside. This kind of thing falls into the same category as things like "comparatives without any comparison", which are often deprecated by English teachers, but which are commonly found in many if not most English dialects.
>>A similar thing happens when people use "shooken" as the simple past of "shake" (e.g. 'She was all shooken up') when "shook" is the correct form because they have confused it with the past participle "shaken."<<
LOL. You analyzed that completely incorrectly. What is going on there is not replacing the simple past form of "shook" with "shooken", which is clearly a past participle form, but rather levelling the vowel distinction between the simple past "shook" and the past participle shaken "shaken", by changing the past participle to "shooken". Such is clearly shown by your own example, where "shooken" is not a simple past form at all, but rather a past participle form being used in a passive construction (note the presence of "was" indicating the use of passive voice in the simple past).
Ich bin mit Travis einverstanden : *<shooken> ist offensichtlich ein Pseudopartizip Perfekt und überhaupt kein Präteritum...
Brennus, did you even really read my post? And for starters, it is irrelevant as to whether <shooken> is listed in some dictionary here, as I was saying that it was a modified, non-standard version of the past participle <shaken> to begin with.
OK, You have to realise that this was just a song made for the masses. Obviously it was used deliberatley, you can't expect Armenians (or anyone as a matter of fact) to care about the grammatical side of their song.
u loosers its just a title of a song! get over it geez it was used to enphasize their lonliness and maybe, just maybe if they thought about it that hard they used it to rebell against the norm of english grammar.
he he i left a comment im happy now but seriously guys move on its gonna be ok
HOJUKITSMI! HOJUKITSMI! MAHIAYAYAYA!!!!
너는의 끈적끈적한 조각 이다.
!!!너는 곳에 너의 넋이 썩을 수 있는 얼마간 어둡고, 추 악한 장소안에 점화한다
너는 한명의 추악한 어머니 멍청이 이다 .