Tommie

full-form question   Sun Apr 23, 2006 10:58 am GMT
Is it correct to put "for me" in the full-form of such sentences?

"My bank manager says (for me) not to set up this project."
Guest   Sun Apr 23, 2006 11:02 am GMT
Yes, use "for me" to confirm that it's with regard to "me".
Tommie   Sun Apr 23, 2006 12:01 pm GMT
Thanks, Guest.
j   Sun Apr 23, 2006 3:39 pm GMT
I'd rather say "My bank manager says TO me not to set up this project."
Am I wrong?
guest2   Sun Apr 23, 2006 4:06 pm GMT
If you want to use 'to' it would have to be in the past tense so it would be:

"My bank manager SAID TO me not to set up this project"
j   Sun Apr 23, 2006 4:24 pm GMT
Sorry, I don't understand why in my case (with TO) it has to be a past tense. Can you explain, please?
Yommie   Sun Apr 23, 2006 5:26 pm GMT
You can say "says not to", which I suppose has omitted "me", because we do not say "says me",
j   Sun Apr 23, 2006 6:29 pm GMT
thanks, Yommie. But then why "SAID TO me" is correct? (guest2 post Sun Apr 23, 2006 4:06 pm GMT) The only difference I can see is a past tense instead of Present.
guest2   Tue Apr 25, 2006 4:05 pm GMT
I can't really explain why, sorry. It just sounds weird.
j   Tue Apr 25, 2006 5:12 pm GMT
Uriel, where are you? seems like you're the only person here who can explain this puzzle for me: why SAID TO ME is correct, but SAYS TO ME is not and "sounds weird"?
Uriel   Wed Apr 26, 2006 9:23 am GMT
There's no reason why "said" would be preferable to "says"; they're two different tenses, and either might be appropriate.

There is a difference between "for me" and "to me", by the way. Either could be correct, but they are not interchangeable.
j   Wed Apr 26, 2006 3:22 pm GMT
Thank you, Uriel