When did American accent become different from British??

Trawicks   Tue Sep 04, 2007 3:28 pm GMT
"Does anyone know why English people developed non-rhotic accent? How come they didn't pronounce 'r' even though the word obviously has an 'r' in the spelling?"

Nobody really knows, although it seems to be a fairly common phonological shift among European languages, existing is dialects of not only English, but also to lesser or greater degrees in some forms of German, Portugese, Spanish and French.

"1. When the hell did American accent become different from British accent?"

Basically American and British English stopped developing together around 1750, when the English stopped emigrating in any largeable quantities (the Irish and the Scottish are quite a different story). Both GenAm and RP are most likely related to the same mid-Eighteenth century dialect of the language. In fact, if you took a GenAm accent and changed nothing except making it non-rhotic, you'd probably notice that it isn't as radically different as RP as you might think.

These are a really good trio of links that give a very detailed account for how British and American English diverged:

http://www.phon.ucl.ac.uk/home/wells/x202-7as6-lecture.pdf
http://www.phon.ucl.ac.uk/home/wells/x202-8-9-as-7-lecture.pdf
http://www.phon.ucl.ac.uk/home/wells/x202-8-lecture-new.pdf

"2. Which area's accent is the origin of American accent? Can you trace it?"

It really depends a lot on what you mean by American accent, since there are obviously different varieties. But I'll assume you mean General American.

GenAm is a form of English spoken in the Midwest in the first half of the twentieth century. Interestingly, although GenAm is widespread through much of the West and East these days, many of the dialects of the actual midwest are diverging greatly from this model, either influenced by the Northern Cities Vowel Shift or, in the southern part of the region, by Southern English.

As far as there being a specific place of origin, I guess the case could be made for Western New England being the birthplace of 'standard' American English, since it is generally postulated as being the birthplace of Northern Midwestern English.

"3. Why do Canadians speak more like Americans despite the fact that they are still a member of the British Commonwealth?
Shouldn't they speak British accent?"

Commonwealth status obviously has nothing to do with linguistics.
ilham   Tue Sep 04, 2007 3:40 pm GMT
i completely agree with trawicks & thanx for the interesting information
Travis   Tue Sep 04, 2007 3:40 pm GMT
>>GenAm is a form of English spoken in the Midwest in the first half of the twentieth century. Interestingly, although GenAm is widespread through much of the West and East these days, many of the dialects of the actual midwest are diverging greatly from this model, either influenced by the Northern Cities Vowel Shift or, in the southern part of the region, by Southern English.<<

Mind you that many Upper Midwestern dialects have already been very significantly impacted by languages brought to the region by immigrants, particularly continental West Germanic languages and North Germanic languages. Note that this significantly predates the Northern Cities Vowel Shift.

As a result, it is likely such that good-sized portions of the Upper Midwest really did not speak anything like General American at all except before the large-scale continental European settlement of the region. For instance, here in southeastern Wisconsin there has been recent divergence from GA thanks to the spread of the NCVS, but GA has never really been spoken here for more than a century. When there was something GA-like spoken here, the very concept of "General America" did not exist yet.

>>As far as there being a specific place of origin, I guess the case could be made for Western New England being the birthplace of 'standard' American English, since it is generally postulated as being the birthplace of Northern Midwestern English.<<

I would say that such is most likely true, considering that New Englanders were the primary group to settle the Upper Midwest before the beginning of continental European settlement of the region.
Milton   Tue Sep 04, 2007 7:06 pm GMT
>>That's right, some dialects of German pronounce post-vocalic /R/ as a vowel [6].

this is also true of many Brazilian dialects, especially that from the capital city (Brasilia DF...Federal District)...

porta /'pOht@/ ---> /'pO6t@/ door
porto /'pohtw/----> /'po@tw/ port, harbor

(in dialects with have /x/ and /r/, there is no possible ''vocalization'')

---
As for English, Western parts of England are still rhotic, and Ireland/Scotland too.
K. T.   Tue Sep 04, 2007 7:15 pm GMT
Good. I like to hear the "r" sound.
Milton   Tue Sep 04, 2007 7:16 pm GMT
It also explains why the Maritimes have a fairly different accent from the rest of Canada (and Newfoundland too, but that's a whole different variety).

not so sure about that
Halifax English sounds very ''standard'' to me, and most speakers there lack the Canadian vowel shift, so HALL is /hAl/, LONG is /lAN/, CAUGHT is /kAt/, BOSTON is /bAst@n/...rather thab /hQl, lQN, kQt, bQst@n/...Rural Nova Scotia and the rest of Maritimes may be a different story, but then again, I wouldn't say Western parts of the USA speak with a different accent just because rural Utah or Wyoming accents :)

Halifax English is my favorite Canadian English accent... It's a pleasure to listen to...unlike some other Canadian accents...
CBC news at six (from Halifax) can be so addictive :=)

From all those accent samples on the ''Please call Stella'' page, Halifax speakers seem to sound the most American to my ear...And Manitoba sounded the most off, with stronly rounded /Q/ in father, caught, not...
AJC   Tue Sep 04, 2007 8:06 pm GMT
This page shows the decline of rhoticity in England over the last 50 years. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rhotic_and_non-rhotic_accents

The area in the North east was (and for fairly aged people still is) /R/ rather than /r/ though
Guest   Wed Sep 05, 2007 7:50 pm GMT
Speakers of non-rhotic accents who are trying to speak with a rhotic accent such as General American will often add an /ɹ/ after vowels which are long in their native speech even when there has never been an /ɹ/ there; an example would be Liverpudlian Paul McCartney's performance of Till There Was You on the album With The Beatles, where he sings "There were birds in the sky, | But I never sawr [sɔɹ] them winging, | No, I never sawr [sɔɹ] them at all, | Till there was you." (assuming that he didn't do so on purpose).


but I never sore them winging,
No, I never sore them at all

LOL