voice pitch

Humble   Wed Sep 12, 2007 4:09 pm GMT
Hello,

The subject I’d like to discuss may be somewhat beyond the scope of the forum –, I will humbly accept the moderators’ decision.

I have unsuccessfully searched the Net trying to find the answer – why is it that the average male American seems to have a deep low pitch voice while in India and Pakistan even a tall and robust man sounds nearly gayish?
Is it genetics or unconscious imitation going from generation to generation?
There are a lot of people of Indian or Pakistani origin who grew up in the US and Britain. Do their voices strike you as different (I am only talking of male voices)?
Guest   Wed Sep 12, 2007 7:45 pm GMT
First of all, define what is "gayish"?
Guest   Wed Sep 12, 2007 7:54 pm GMT
<There are a lot of people of Indian or Pakistani origin who grew up in the US and Britain. Do their voices strike you as different (I am only talking of male voices)? >

Nope. A lot of cousins were born and raised in Canada and USA. Their voices sound exactly the same way that mine does when we speak in our native language. I can not pinpoint any stand-out differencess in their voices.

On another note, to my ears the voices of American males sound like loud, strong and manly(if you know what I mean by the last term.)

Voices of some Indian or Pakistani males can be taken as girlish like some women are speaking. So far I have not seen such a thing among American males.
Jasper   Wed Sep 12, 2007 8:31 pm GMT
Could be related to the languages.

I read once a dissertation of language frequencies. American English is spoken with a lower range of frequencies than British English, making it easier to learn for Frenchmen (for example), whose language is spoken with a frequency closer to American English.

With this in mind, Indian English, through its influence from the British during the era of the Empire, would, of course, be spoken closer to British frequencies, and would thus sound higher-pitched than that of an American.

I hope this gives food for thought.
Humble   Thu Sep 13, 2007 5:29 am GMT
Gayish - did I coin a new word? I meant effeminate, homosexual.

No, Jasper, how can the pitch be related to the language? Indians speak Hindi and English with the same pitch. Besides, there are quite a few native speakers of English, including Americans, with high pitch voices.
Jasper   Thu Sep 13, 2007 5:36 pm GMT
Humble, I'm referring to the range of frequencies. They are, indeed, lower in American English than in British English.

Maybe I misunderstood the question. Perhaps pitch isn't the same thing as range of frequency.

If that's the case, perhaps Indian men are smaller in stature? While this is, admittedly, a generalization, smaller men TEND to have higher-pitched voices.
Guest   Fri Sep 14, 2007 5:02 am GMT
I've noticed that some men who learn English tend to speak in tenor voices. Did they model their voices after female teachers or high-pitched male singers? Jasper may be on to something with the stature or build of the man. I've heard some Baritones who are short, though!

Pitch can be related to language. I know I speak some languages in a higher pitch than I use in English.
Humble   Fri Sep 14, 2007 6:34 am GMT
Jasper, I am not talking of BE vs AmE pitch differences.
I claim the average male American has a much lower pitch voice than the average European or Asian heard in the media, and the average Indian has a particularly high pitch voice; all this regardless of a man’s stature or the language he speaks.
I wonder what sociolinguistic or biological mechanisms form the voice pich typical for a nation – that’s the core of my question.
Guest   Fri Sep 14, 2007 8:08 am GMT
Define these terms: "lower pitch voice" and "high pitch voice".