Jordi, Can you please tell me?
1. Which Spanish accent do you like the most (subjectively) from all around the Spanish speaking world? Can you make a Top 3 accents?
2. And which Hispanic Spanish (including Castilian) accent is softer and which is rougher?
3. Which new world Spanish is closer to Castilian?( grammar, pronunciation etc)
4. Why Castilian Spanish is ”thuthuro” or “so lisp” and how did it happen?
5. Why Catalano is so “BarTHelona” (lisp) as well?
6. In what parts of Spain the language is not so “thuthuro”? And why?
7. How would describe Castilian vs “Hispanic” language?
Jordi, Please add the number in front of your answer, so I can track it easily!
Thank you very much Jordi ! I really appreciate your effort!!!
Eh, "someone who like spanish", LISP is a speech impediment. People with a lisp are unable to pronounce sibilants (like the sound of "s") and replace them with interdentals (like the sound of "th"). It is somewhat ironic that this handicap is called a "lisp," as this is difficult to pronounce for some with the condition.
A common MISCONCEPTION, especially among Latin American speakers of Spanish, is that speakers of Castilian Spanish "speak with a lisp".
This is untrue: if speakers of Castilian Spanish spoke with a lisp, we would be unable to pronounce the sound [s] ("s") and would substitute a [θ] ("th") for it, but in reality we pronounce and distinguish those two sounds just as sharply as English speakers, and if a [θ] is pronounced in place of a [s], the result is a completely different word in Castilian, as reflected in the orthography (caza ≠ casa), just like what happens in English (thing ≠ sing).
The real story of why we,Castilian speakers,distinguish those two sounds while Latin American and Andalusian castilian speakers do not is quite different and has nothing to do with lisps. 15th-century Spanish had six sibilant phonemes, more than any current variety of Spanish, and those six phonemes merged differently as they evolved into the pronunciation of the modern dialects. There were three pairs of voiceless versus voiced sibilants: dentoalveolar affricates (spelled c/ç vs. z), apicoalveolar fricatives (-ss-/s-/-s vs. -s-), and prepalatal fricatives (x vs. j/g). The first step away from that system was to fricativize the dentoalveolar affricates.
Then, in Castilian Spanish the second step was to lose the voiceless/voiced distinction in favour of the voiceless member, and the final step was to alter the pronunciation of the three resulting phonemes so as to boost their acoustic distinction (because they were used to distinguish many minimal pairs, but phonetically they were too similar and thus prone to cause confusion). The dentoalveolar was moved "forward" to interdental (the sound of th) and the prepalatal was moved "backwards" to velar (the sound of ch in Scottish loch), resulting in the three-way distinction used in modern Castilian: interdental /θ/ (spelled c/z), apicoalveolar /s/ (s, note that this sound of Castilian is different from an English s, because it is pronounced with the tip of the tongue instead of with its blade), and velar /x/ (j/g).
I didn't answer before so it must be some troll.
Since you mention my name I must tell you that is far too wide and you expect too much from me.
All Castilian Spanish accents are beautiful and all Castilian Spanish spoken by educated natives speakers sounds wonderful. It can even be beautiful in the mouth of genuine speakers who speak in a natural fashion.
You can apply that to any language you want.
Chloe I really appreciate your effort and I'm glad you did it.
I feel these kinds of "exams" can easily be checked in Internet sites that are written both in Castilian Spanish and English.
I obviously agree with everything Chloe says in this mail.
Chloe, Nobody said "with a lisp" but rather "TH" instead of some "CE/S/Z"
Well, for us non Spanish speakers, Castilian and Catalan sounds kind of th-th-th-ish quite a lot, considering the extra number of "CE/S/Z" in Spanish.Unlike other languages...
"In Spanish the lisp grew to be fashionable reputedly because the King lisped at one point. People in some parts of Spain are still taught to lisp when pronoucing certain words..." Can you confirm/infirm ?
Or is just an Urban Legend ?
"Th" or interdental sound is not a Catalan sound and it doesn't exist at all in Catalan where we pronounce "Barselona". Older or rural Catalan speakers have a hard time saying the Castilian Peninsular Standard interdental "Barthelona".
Interdental "th" appears in quite recent times in Castilian Spanish (15th/16th century perhaps) and the king's story is an "urban legend".
We've already touched that point in ANTIMOON and it's easy to find in the Internet.
Castilian Spanish and Catalan phonetics are quite different and are also easy to check.
How is the Naming Conventions in Spain ?
Do married women usually change their names after marriage ? I know is not compulsory, but anyway...
Since married women are not usually refered to by their husbands' last name, it may be tricky at first to determine who is married to whom...
laslo
You didn´t read my last post.
You say "in spanish the lisp....".According to the dictionary, Lisp: speak with a lisp.
And I wrote "LISP is a speech impediment. People with a lisp are unable to pronounce sibilants (like the sound of "s") and replace them with interdentals (like the sound of "th").
if speakers of Castilian Spanish spoke with a lisp, we would be unable to pronounce the sound [s] ("s") and would substitute a ("th") for it, but in reality we pronounce and distinguish those two sounds just as sharply as English speakers.
We pronounce ce ci and z with a (th) and s without a (th)
"In Spanish the lisp grew to be fashionable reputedly because the King lisped at one point. People in some parts of Spain are still taught to lisp when pronoucing certain words..."
It goes without saying
We can distinguish beteween:
casa- caza (house-hunting)
vaso-bazo (glass-spleen) (b and v are the same sound in spanish)
taza-tasa (cup-tax)
pazo-paso (ancestral home- step)
cazo-caso ( case -small saucepan)
cazar- casar (to hunt- to marry)
etc
Edited
"In Spanish the lisp grew to be fashionable reputedly because the King lisped at one point. People in some parts of Spain are still taught to lisp when pronoucing certain words..."
Absolutely Stupid.
In Spain one has two surnames. His father's surname and his mother's surname. Therefore, one is called, for example, José Calderón Martínez.
Women keep both their maiden surnames when they get married. She is not asjed to change her surnames just because she happens to marry someone. She will officially remain her father's and mother's daughter. I find that is what should always happen.
Therefore, the first surname is the one that is handed on to future generations but nobody is asked to change is family name just because she happens to marry someone. It also makes it much easier for you to track a childhood or youth girl friend. She won't have changed her name.
In other countries, a lady who marries 6 times in her life will have had 7 surnames (including her father's) whilst a man never changes his surname. What do you call that?
We find that quite a strange thing to happen.
Obviously, that means that Mrs. Martínez is married to Mr. Calderón, since Mrs. Martínez used to be called Miss Martínez. (change Mrs. for Señora and Miss for Señorita.)
A new law was recently been passed enabling families to adopt the mother's surname as the first surname. I don't really know the details but I know it can be done. I remember reading that, in those cases, all the children have to have the same surname.
It's usually done in cases where a surname might be lost or in cases when you don't like your surname at all because of what it means.
Children without any known father (but with a known mother) obviously carry her mother's two surnames and is, in a sense, also a "daughter" of her grand-parents and will have the same surnames than her uncles and aunts.
Editing:
asked
his family name
their mother's surname
their uncles and aunts
<<In Spain one has two surnames. His father's surname and his mother's surname. Therefore, one is called, for example, José Calderón Martínez.>>
We do the reverse in the Philippines. A name like José Calderón Martínez would tell you that José's father's surname is Martínez, while his mother's surname before marriage was Calderón.
Unlike in Spain, a woman adopts her husband's family name as her surname and drops her mother's surname. So Teresa García Calderón would become Teresa Calderón Martínez after marrying Mr. Martínez. Her children would carry the Calderón Martínez name until marriage, if female. A man keeps his name from birth to death.
I agree with Joaquin !
In Spain the name convention is kind of weird if not primitive !
Jesus ! I would like my woman to have my last name...So you'll know she's my wife and not other's...And she'll be happy to do the same !!!
/me just shakes his head...