Does France deserve its name?

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fab   Wed Aug 16, 2006 9:09 pm GMT
" I am not necesarily using "Gallic" as a synonym for "French". "

Hmm, didn't said "to say that France is not of Gallic culture is a mistruth". To me it means that you consider France to be of Gallic culture, and so that since France culture is called "French", you meant that "Gallic" means "French".


" You seem to equate the transformation of the Celts of Gaul into Romans, and then think of these new people as the "French". "
The transormation (and mix) of Gauls with Roman culture (and people), didn't made them French, of course not ! It made them GALLO-ROMANS, the kind of romans of the various provinceS called under the names "Gallia".

" the people of Gaul did not become "French" until centuries after the Frankish conquest "
Yes, you're right ! The birth of the french nation and French people is a long processus that began when the political construction that coresponded to the romance territories of the Frankish kingdom were separated after the division of the Charlemagne's empire. But since then a long time was necessary to see the formation of the french identity as we know it - And the processus is continuing.




" "French" means "of Francia", or simply, "Frank". "

NO ! Waht a semantic (and historic) confusion! "French" means "of France". "Franks" mean from the germanic tribe called "Franks", they created a frankish kingdom in wich they were a ruling minority. Of course the words are related, but they doesn't have the same meanings. The same way "Catalan" doesn't mean "goth" but from the region called "catalunia", even if the words "Catalunia" and "goth" are related.


" The name of the people of France is a direct derivative of "Frank". "

Right, but with a complete different meaning.




" In Charlemagne's day, centuries after the fall of Western Roman Empire, the native inhabitants of Charlemagne's domain in Gaul were called "Gauls". "

Charlemagne couldn't have a domain in Gaul since Gaul was not existing anymore. the subjcts of Charlemagne were diverse peoples, some were germanic tribes at the east of the Rhine, and others were Romance speakers msotly descending of Gallo-Romans.



" How many of them were "pure Gauls"? Again, you seem to misinterpret what I am saying. By the 500s A.D. - 800s A.D., "Gaul" no longer meant the same thing as it did before. A "Gaul" was merely a person, a native, or citizen of Gaul, whether he be black, blue, purple, pink, grey, green, orange, or yellow. "

I don't how Anglophones historians use (or misuse) the word "Gaul" or "gallic" in English but in French, we could not be confuse : The Gauls are the pre-roman celtic peoples. After Romanization we speak about Gallo-Romans, not Gaul because these people are not of Celtic (Gallic) culture.


" Just as today, the term "Mexican" does not necessarily mean an Aztec/Mexica indian, but any number of things, ranging from a Spanish criollo to a Mestizo, to a native. This is because Mexico and its people have been transformed. "

How Mexico people could have been transformed after Spanish colonisation since Mexico didn't exist yet at that time ? What existed was Aztec empire, not Mexico. MExican identity is born with the hispanization of natives and their mix with Spaniards; As long as Spanish was not the language we canno't speak about Mexico and Mexcians. We can speak about the Mexica people, who were native indians, but they were not MexicaN.
Calling French culture and people a "gallic" culture is a wrong as calling Mexican culture and people an "Aztec" culture.




" The people of Gaul were thouroughly mixed, particularly in the south. "

Gaul didn't existed anymore at that time, and I am not sure that the southerners were more mixed than northerners - depends with who.




" But that doesn't change the fact that they were still Gallic, and still Gauls. "

Does inhabitants of nowaday Mexico still be aztecs after Spanish colonization ?



" Maybe repeat what I am saying in your own words Fab, so I know you understood what I'm trying to say "

I understod, but I just explain that using "Gaul" to Speak about peoples of "Gallo-Roman" culture is an historic/cultural misunderstanding, at least in French language. I understand that in English you seem to like very much using the term "gallic" to speak about French things, but it is very inacurated to our ears, since we ear it as if you meant that French are a Celtic people, which we are not.



" France derives its name from the fact that, when Charlemagne's vast empire was partitioned among his sons and their successors, the domain which covered the modern borders of France, was known as "West Francia". Because of this, the name of the country eventually became "France". "

I thank you for the information but I already knew the early history of the French kingdom.



" But calling the country "France" is about as silly as calling Italy (Ostrogothia), or Spain ( Visigothia). Although, there are regions within these countries named after the Germanic settlers like Andalusia (Vandalusia), or Lombardia (Lombards), etc. "

You may find it silly but that is the way it is since centuries !
Our name is a legacy of history and legacies inside the carolingian domains herencies. Our country is now called "France" that's all. Today it is just a name, and yes it has germanic origins; The same way a lot Spanish speaker have germanic-derived names. Is it "silly" ? Will you make a petition to change the name of Catalans (name coming from "goths" - gothalunia/Catalunia), of Lombards, of Andalucians, etc. These names are just a historical testimony of what happended in the past ruling classes and does not speak about the current people and culture of these territories. Even if the name "French" derived etymologically from "Franks", today it does not refer to the same people, and they are two different words, no confusion possible. "France" and "Frankish kingdom" are two different words that doesn't reffer to the same thing and the same people.
LAA   Wed Aug 16, 2006 9:28 pm GMT
Well, in English, depending on the time period which you are referring to, "Gallic" can refer to "Celtic", pre-Roman peoples, culture, and civilization. But when used when referring to the Gallo-Romans, and the Latin people of Gaul after the fall of the Roman Empire, it carries no Celtic conotation at all. The land was still called "Gaul" during, and after the time it was part of the Roman Empire, and the inhabitants were still known as Gauls. That does not mean they weren't Roman. Because within the great umbrella of the Roman people, there were Greeks, Jews, Arabs, North Africans, Italians, Spaniards, etc. But, specifically, they were Gauls. "Gallo-Roman" is just a term invented by scholars and historians to describe the Romanized inhabitants of Gaul, and the regional Latin culture of the area. But, after the fall of the empire, in the subsequent centuries, all of these former parts of the Roman Empire were isolated, and underwent their own, unique, cultural and linguistic evolutions. So, by the 800s, in Charlemagne's day, the people of Gaul had lost all contact and connection with the Roman Empire, which no longer existed. So, they were simply "Gauls". This is not to be confused with "Gallic" in the sense that they were a Celtic people and culture. When you use this term when referring to the people of Gaul in this time period, you are talking about the region's unique branch of LATIN culture. By this time, the foundations for France's culture were already laid, in the form of Gallo-Roman, or simply "Gallic" (as in "Latin") culture. It was this cultural foundation which was formed by the Romanized GAULS and propogated by future generations of Latinized Gauls.

The majority of Charlemagne's subjects in the Romance speaking parts of his domain were called "Gauls". If you don't believe me, read the writings of Gregory of Tours, or others from later periods. The Franks wrote about co-existing among the "Gauls", about the cultural characteristics of the "Gallic women", the "spirit and temperment of the Gauls". When the soon to be Emperor Julian was commisioned in the province of Gaul in the 300s, he called the people "Gauls". He had a legion comprised totally of "Gallic auxillaries", known for their valor. By the time of Emperor Julian, these people were completely Romanized. But they were still called "Gauls", just as Hispano-Romans were still called "Spaniards". Trajan "the Spaniard" is just one example.
Gringo   Thu Aug 17, 2006 12:44 pm GMT
Brennus Wed Aug 16, 2006 5:50 pm GMT
««Gringo,

I don't totally disagree with you but Galicia, even Asturias and the Basque country were not lands coveted by invaders coming into Spain. The Carthaginians never occupied them, there is not much Roman archeology there (about as much as is in England) and the Visigoths seem to have had only tenuous control over them. »»

But they were occupied by the Suevi and the Vandals.

Hispania was already dealing with the revolt of the "bagaudas" when the Germanic people arrived.

Gallaecia was one of the first lands occupied by the Germanic people (Vandals and Suevi). The first Iberian kingdom , the Suebi Kingdom ("Gallaeccia Suevorum regnum"), lasted until 584 with the death of "Audeca Suevorum rex" .
They were absorbed by the Visigoth but their administrative, social and religious institutions were left autonomous.

the chronicon of IDATII:

"[]Gallaeciam Wandali occupant et Suevi, sitam in extremitate Oceani maris occidua.”


««the Visigoths seem to have had only tenuous control over them.»»

You mean the Visigoth did not have much control over the Suevi, that were Germanos= irmãos, and their people . There had been several alliance marriages between Visigoth and Suevi. Gallaecia just stopped having a Suevi king the people remained in Galicia.
greg   Thu Aug 17, 2006 2:15 pm GMT
Quelques ressources cartographiques :

1/ QUATRE GAULES
Belgique, Lyonnaise (ou Celtique), Aquitaine (avec subdivision possible —> Novempopulanie = Petite Aquitaine) & Narbonnaise
http://his.nicolas.free.fr/Images/Cartes/GauleRomaine_WEB.jpg
http://babel.lexilogos.com/img/gaulois.gif
http://www.ph-ludwigsburg.de/html/2b-frnz-s-01/overmann/baf4/bretagne/Gaule_pt.jpg
http://formation.paris.iufm.fr/~archiv03/beynet/public_html/images/reseau_routier.jpg
http://www.memo.fr/Media/PAY_FRA_GAU_A.jpg
http://www.uark.edu/campus-resources/mbracy/Gaul.jpg
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Province1.gif

2/ QUATRE GAULES
Gaule Aquitaine réduite au minimum (Novempopulanie)
http://jfbradu.free.fr/celtes/sixiemes/gaule-avant2.gif
http://www3.sympatico.ca/rene.cormier1/map/gaule.jpg
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/b/ba/Map_Gallia_Tribes_Towns.png/250px-Map_Gallia_Tribes_Towns.png
http://www.tu-berlin.de/fb1/AGiW/Auditorium/BeGriRoe/SO6/BellGall.gif

3/ QUATRE GAULES ET DEUX GERMANIES
http://histoireenprimaire.free.fr/images/gaule_romaine.gif

4/ CINQ GAULES
Armorique, Belgique, Chevelue, Aquitaine (Novempopulanie) & Narbonnaise
http://www.cndp.fr/revueTDC/Images/670-40555.jpg
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/fr/2/2b/Peuples_gaulois.jpg
http://www.comedix.de/lexikon/db/img/gallienheft.jpg (les Gaules d'Astérix)

5/ NEUF & DIX GAULES (!!!)
http://home.no.net/silkmen/images/legion/Map_Gaul.gif
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Province4s.gif

6/ DEUX GAULES
Gaule indépendante et Province romaine (Narbonnaise)
http://his.nicolas.free.fr/Images/Cartes/GuerreGaule_WEB.jpg
http://www.geocities.com/archeobel/CARTE_GUEURRE_EN_GAULE_.JPG
http://www.ostu.ru/personal/nikolaev/gallia-1.gif
http://www.homolaicus.com/storia/antica/roma/images/mappa_gallia_cesare.jpg
http://www.redrampant.com/images/mgaulmap.jpg

7/ TROIS GAULES
http://www.ucm.es/info/antigua/Cartografia/cesar1.jpg
http://indoeuro.bizland.com/project/chron/gaul.gif

8/ GAULE BARBARE
NB : « Gaule barbare » désignait aussi la Gaule chevelue (Gallia comata) = Gaule celtique = Gaule lyonnaise *AVANT* les inavsions barbares
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/0/00/Karte_v%C3%B6lkerwanderung.jpg
http://www.chez.com/fatra/images/carte.JPG
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Gaule481.gif
http://www.cancoillotte.net/IMG/jpg/477.jpg
http://perso.orange.fr/palladia/carte_fin_empire.gif
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Invasion_421-480.gif

9/ GAULE FRANQUE & BURGONDE
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Gaule511.gif
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Francs_7os.gif

DIVERS
http://www.pitt.edu/~medart/image/france/france-l-to-z/mapsfrance/sf038fra.jpg
http://clionide.free.fr/images/Diocese.JPG
LAA   Thu Aug 17, 2006 4:39 pm GMT
"Does inhabitants of nowaday Mexico still be aztecs after Spanish colonization ? "

Yes, the inhabitants of Mexico still carry the name of the Aztecs. The real name of the so-called "Aztecs" was the "Mexica". Tenochtitlan, the capital of their empire, was also called "Mexico", or "City of Mexico". The Spanish called the Mexica "Aztecs", because of their legendary origins of having come from a long ago forgotted land to the distant north, known to them as "Aztlan".
So, yes, to this day we carry the name of the people of Mexico.
Sergio   Thu Aug 17, 2006 6:25 pm GMT
Hi LAA,

Just for the records.
The territory of nowadays Mexico does not fit at all with the extension of the Aztec (Mexica) empire. There is a lot of territory (actually more than a half of the extension) which was never under the Aztec rule. At the time the Spaniards came here, it was the Aztecs who happened to be the dominant people, although since not such a long time (about 200 years only!!!).

But there was a number of other cultures which did not share anything with the Aztecs, except for being economically dominated by them.

So, by applying the same criterion, Mexico would not "deserve" its name either. But it was named so in a punctual historic moment, which does not reflect either the past history, or the whole extension of the land.

I think the same has happened to a lot of countries in the world.

Spain owes its name to an old Phoenician (or Cartaghian?) root meaning "place of rabits", so there is even less connection with its human inhabitants, but nobody cares nowadays about it.
LAA   Thu Aug 17, 2006 10:14 pm GMT
That is true Sergio. The Mexica Empire, and their Nahuatl speaking cousins, like those of Texcoco, and Texcala, were limited to the central area of modern Mexico, with the farthest limit of Aztec imperial control was on the border of Central America. So, Mexico was named after the dominant people of the land at the time of the Spanish conquest. Remember, Tenochtitlan was one of the biggest cities in the world at the time, and Mexica civilization, was in many ways, more advanced than that of Europeans at the time. But the name of Mexico when applied to all of former New Spain, overlooks the existence of dozens of other peoples, like the Mixtecas, the Olmecas, the Mayas, the Janambre, the Tzacateca, the Toboso, the Hua, the Chicimecha, the Raramuri, the Pame, the Cora, the Otomi, the Michihuacanitl, the Acolhua, the Tecpaneca, the Purempecha, the Chimalhuaca, the Tzapoteca, the Chiapa, the Coatzalcoali, the Chololuah, and many others. And yes, I read a great deal about the history of Mexico.
But, at least we were named after one of the native inhabitants. Of all the peoples to choose from, the Mexica being the largest, and most dominant tribe, would seem to be the best choice. But, at least the Mexica were native to that land. The Franks were not native to Gaul. The natives of Gaul were the Romanized Gauls. Naming a country after its conqueror would be like having named Mexico after the Spanish, and calling it Espana. What is even more absurd, is that the Franks, far from Germanicizing the native population, were instead assimilated by the natives themselves. The Spanish hispanicized the native inhabitants of Mexico, and the land STILL bears the name of its native inhabitants. Most of southern and south-eastern Britain came to be called "England", and fittingly so, because the region became home to Germanic-Anglo-Saxon culture and language. Gaul did not become home to Frankish culture and language. It preserved its Gallic (Gallo-Roman, Latin) culture and language, and the native inhabitants remained the overwhelming majority. Therefore, I don't believe it merits the changing of its name, to represent something that it was not.
Guest   Thu Aug 17, 2006 11:04 pm GMT
Hi LAA,
>But, at least the Mexica were native to that land...
Not quite true. Remember that they came originally far from the North... as I said, it was rather the importance of their power at the moment in which they were conquered which let an impact strong enough to influence on the name this land would take later. I think that the same happened in France. They were a minority, culturally, linguistically and numerically speaking, yes, they always were. But they left their print on the land, and in the moment France emerged, as greg says, as a political creation, it was still strong enough to influence the naming of this country.

So, in the end, this is in my opinion a relative matter. It would be impossible if it is fair or not, right or wrong.
Guest   Thu Aug 17, 2006 11:06 pm GMT
" The Franks were not native to Gaul. "

Gauls were not either, like all Celts they were from central Europe.



" The natives of Gaul were the Romanized Gauls "

Why do you have problem to call them with their name: Gallo-Romans ? (who were not only descendants of romanized gauls by the way, but also pre celtic peoples, other romans, Greeks, etc.)


" Naming a country after its conqueror would be like having named Mexico after the Spanish "

"Latin America" is named after the conquerors culture, as far I know the indigenous people were not latin !
The island of Hait+Dom Rep is called "Hispaniola", named after Spain.
Colombia is named after the Genovese Cristobal Colombus, who was the first of a long serie of conquerors. The whole Continent of America was named after a European conqueror : Amerigo Vespuci (an Italian too, does it mean that Colombia and America are italian lands, or that they deserve their names ?) , etc.


" What is even more absurd, is that the Franks, far from Germanicizing the native population, were instead assimilated by the natives themselves. "

Franks are not our ancestors, they didn't gave us their culture, but they were the first people who created the political entity that is now called France; that is history had retained that name, that's all. Gauls were not our ancestors (contrary of the famous sentence), they didn't gave us their language and culture, they didn't created the political contruction that gave birth to the nation and they were not even natives of the land (celts are from central Europe), their culture dissapeared 2000 year ago...



" and the land STILL bears the name of its native inhabitants. "

Names are the fruit of hasards of history; Mexico/Mexicans derived its name from Mexicas (not MexicaNs!), but other countries' names have no link with the previous peoples : Costa Rica, USA, Argentina, Bolivia, Dominican Republic, and so on... etc. Quebec is a native indian name, it doesn't mean that Quebecers are natives indians or have indian culture.


Why don't you preach to change the names of Lombardia, Andalucia or Catalunia ? That the former roman empire lands took the names of the conquestants is not a specificity of France.
fab   Thu Aug 17, 2006 11:08 pm GMT
it was me in the last post
Sergio   Thu Aug 17, 2006 11:09 pm GMT
The post above the above post was mine.

Fab, I agree with you.
LAA   Fri Aug 18, 2006 2:53 am GMT
<<Not quite true. Remember that they came originally far from the North...>>

Yes, but they had been living in the Valley of Mexico for centuries. It took centuries for them to create an advanced civilization like their neighbors around them. A city as magnificent and large as Tenochtitlan would have taken centuries to build. The Mexica had inhabited this land for as long as recorded history could count. So, yes, they were native to that land.


"Why do you have problem to call them with their name: Gallo-Romans ? (who were not only descendants of romanized gauls by the way, but also pre celtic peoples, other romans, Greeks, etc.) "

I don't have a problem. Why do you have a problem calling them "Gauls"? And a Gaul, during the Roman Empire and afterwards, was a political term. Someone was a "Gaul" if they were a native or citizen of Gaul, whether their ethnic origin, was Italic-Roman, Greek, Celtic, Jews, or any mix of the above. Just as you say that a Frenchmen is a Frenchmen regardless of his ethnic origin. To you, and to most people, what defines a Frenchmen is not their ethnic origin, but the land in which they reside. So, a person of African ancestry who was born and raised in France, he would be just as French, as someone with the last name of "Bonet". By the end of the Roman empire, "Gallic" no longer applied strictly to the Celtic people, but instead reflected the melting pot of people that Gaul had become. So, when the textbooks say, "Our ancestors, the Gauls", they are not implying that the modern French are direct descendants of mainly Celtic people. They're saying that the traditional French people, are the descendants of the Gauls of the Roman Empire, who were themselves, a mix of Celt, "Latin", Greek, etc.

<<Latin America" is named after the conquerors culture, as far I know the indigenous people were not latin ! >>

That's because the people of LA are "Latin" in the linguistic, and cultural sense. They speak Latin languages, and are Roman Catholic. If the people of Latin America still mainly spoke native languages, and were not of Hispanic or Lusitanian culture, then they wouldn't be called "Latino-Americanos".
LAA   Fri Aug 18, 2006 3:13 am GMT
The Frankish empire or kingdom, was divided after the fall of Charlemagne. The divisions roughly ended up forming the modern day nation states of Germany, the Netherlands, and France. These countries were all part of the Frankish kingdom, known in Latin, as "Francia". Yet, of all the factions of the empire, the only major province which inheritied the name of the Franks, was Gaul/France. Despite the fact that most of the Franks did not live in Gaul. Despite the fact that Gaul was not of Frankish/Germanic culture, but of Latin culture. Despite the fact that the people of Gaul spoke a Romance language, and not a Germanic language as the other Frankish provinces did, such as the modern day Netherlands and Germany. Of all the former parts of the Frankish empire, Gaul/France least deserved the name of the Franks, or French. If any province should have been named after the Germanic Franks, it would have to be the modern day Netherlands and Germany. But, as is often times the case, history plays with irony.
fab   Fri Aug 18, 2006 8:15 am GMT
" If any province should have been named after the Germanic Franks, it would have to be the modern day Netherlands and Germany. But, as is often times the case, history plays with irony. "

You just can't expect History to be logical and reational; Nobody was thinking to the implications of the name "francia" when it was first used. But that is just the way it was, as you said ironically "France" had its name from Franks, but not its culture and people, while Germany or Netherland had the people and language but not the name... That is not logical but that was the way it was, and since then France reffers to a land of western Europe with the romance-based culture known as "French", wich has nothing to day in meaning with "franks", only in etymology.
We could remember that after the division of Charlemagne empire, the other parts have been forming an empire called "holly Roman empire". Ironically it was the les romanized part of the Frankish former territory...

Rationally, if France should have been named after its dominant culture it should (and could) have been named something like "Romania", or "Romania occidentalis", "Romanica", "galloromania", etc.



" That's because the people of LA are "Latin" in the linguistic, and cultural sense. They speak Latin languages, and are Roman Catholic. If the people of Latin America still mainly spoke native languages, and were not of Hispanic or Lusitanian culture, then they wouldn't be called "Latino-Americanos". "

That would be logical, but it is not exaclty in that way that history has made that the word evoluted; On exemple would be Quebec, wich is in all points as much latin as Mexico (if not more), but which is not recognised as part of latin-America and Quebecers are not considers to be latin-Americans.
The other way, a lot of people in latin America are considered latin Americans but speak primarally indigenous languages (more than half of the population of countries such as Bolivia or Guatemala - should those countries excluded from latin America ? Logically they should.
a.p.a.m.   Fri Aug 18, 2006 1:21 pm GMT
fab said "The birth of the French nation and French people is a long process that began when the political construction that corresonded to the Romance territories of the Frankish Kingdom were separated after the division of Charlemagne's empire." I agree. That is why France should be named after the Franks and not the Gauls. The Gauls did not form the political unit that we now acknowledge as "France". The Franks did that. Just because the Gauls were more numerous, and they were there first, doesn't necessarily give them the distinction of having the territory that they inhabit named after them.
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