I wonder if the Latin and Germanic languages ever mated
"England is not Anglo-saxon anymore"
England has never been Anglo-Saxon (that is what the guys from Oxford are saying), except for the language. And yes the endurance of the original population is something modern genetics has been proven over and over.
I posted this because Adolfo, who in a typical Spanish way, makes false statements like "They were heavily anglosaxonized and the original population erased from the map". Actually the opposite is true and the Anglo-Saxons in the whole British Islands have been a small minority, despite all the silly history we have been taught.
<<<Actually the opposite is true and the Anglo-Saxons in the whole British Islands have been a small minority, despite all the silly history we have been taught. >>>
Here another genetic study coming from London and proving the exact contrary:
Y Chromosome Evidence for Anglo-Saxon Mass Migration
by Michael E. Weale, Mark G. Thomas et al.
from the Centre for Genetic Anthropology, Departments of Biology and Anthropology, University College London, University of London
...Using novel population genetic models that incorporate both mass migration and continuous gene flow, we conclude that these striking patterns are best explained by a substantial migration of Anglo-Saxon Y chromosomes into Central England (contributing 50%–100% to the gene pool at that time) but not into North Wales. ...
That study which states that British have less than 10% ofGermanic genes is not reliable. If there is a place to which there were massive migrations of Germanic tribes from their homeland that is the British Isles. They took their wives and children and displaced the native population to the West (Wales) and the extreme North (Highlands, Scotland). That is what serious DNA , archeological, anthropological, historical and linguistic studies say. I think that this is not a strange theory, but everybody in UK knows that.
Read the document before you jump to conclusions:
"Buccal swabs were collected from 313 males in the British towns of North Walsham, Fakenham, Bourne, Southwell, Ashbourne, Abergele, and Llangefni"
This study refers to a very small number of samples and it's 5 years all. New studies have proved the conclusions from this study to be inaccurate.
"They took their wives and children and displaced the native population to the West (Wales) and the extreme North (Highlands, Scotland). That is what serious DNA , archeological, anthropological, historical and linguistic studies say. I think that this is not a strange theory, but everybody in UK knows that."
Your arguments are childish: "but everybody in UK knows that." This is not the way science works. Science often contradicts what everybody knows because science is above all skeptical. Before posting here you should learn a few basic scientific principles instead of relying on fallacies such as "everybody knows".
http://www.prospect-magazine.co.uk/article_details.php?id=7817
The latest studies from Oxford do not support what you are saying and the DNA analysis that the company providing the following data does day after day and post online do not support that but quite the opposite:
http://www.scs.uiuc.edu/~mcdonald/WorldHaplogroupsMaps.pdf
<<<<This study refers to a very small number of samples and it's 5 years all. New studies have proved the conclusions from this study to be inaccurate. >>>>
It is really scandalous
Michael E. Weale*,1, Deborah A. Weiss,1, Rolf F. Jager*, Neil Bradman* and Mark G. Thomas*
*The Centre for Genetic Anthropology, Departments of Biology and Anthropology, University College London, University of London;
Department of Anthropology, University of California, Davis;
Faculteit Biologie, Vrije Universiteit, Amsterdam, The Netherlands
did not realize as quickly as you that the number of samples is too small!
Source is
http://mbe.oxfordjournals.org/cgi/content/full/19/7/1008
<<...The best explanation for our findings is that the Anglo-Saxon cultural transition in Central England coincided with a mass immigration from the continent. Such an event would simultaneously explain both the high Central English-Frisian affinity and the low Central English-North Welsh affinity. If we use a rate of 0.1%, as observed over the past 25 years, to represent an extremely high value for continuous background migration between Central England and continental Europe, then we estimate that an Anglo-Saxon immigration event affecting 50%–100% of the Central English male gene pool at that time is required >>
This research validates corroborates what I said. There was a massive migration of Anglo-Saxons to Central and Eastern Great Britain.
"did not realize as quickly as you that the number of samples is too small!"
Read the article. It states clearly that they use 313 samples.
The results from Oxford (from over 10.000 samples) totally contradict this study.
But myths certainly die hard...
"This is not the place to discuss the genetic makeup of Europe. Thanks"
Lalonde you are really stupid.
<<This is not the place to discuss the genetic makeup of Europe. Thanks. >>
Josh, this in a way is helping us to determine the linguistic situation in Iberia, with comparison to Great Britain. But I agree, we need to rein this in to our original discussion...
"England is not Anglo-saxon anymore"
Yes England is Asiatic and black for 90%