Qué hacer para hablar castellano como un nativo, sin acento?

Guest   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:09 pm GMT
I met a romanian who has lived in Spain for 3 years and his Spanish is far from being native.
kwisatzhaderach   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:10 pm GMT
<<Puede ser que te tratan así porque no quieren ofenderte?>>

No creo que sea el caso,porque nunca se pierde una oportunidad para ofender.

Guest ,I was talking about Castilian Spanish. You must really live in Paraguay or somewhere near.
kwisatzhaderach   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:13 pm GMT
<<I met a romanian who has lived in Spain for 3 years and his Spanish is far from being native.>>

Oh ,yes, I remember you....
Guest   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:15 pm GMT
I was talking about Castilian Spanish too . Maybe you heard Galician instead.
Saying that Spanish has the "sh" sound is the same as saying that there are also schwas, closed o or something like that.
kwisatzhaderach   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:20 pm GMT
I said "sh"-like because I didn't know how to describe it better. In Aragon people pronounce it really close to this. Or ,who knows,I might be speaking Galician and not even know it.
Guest   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:27 pm GMT
Yes, you mean sh like in "she", don't you? I can tell you that when I studied English at school, some pupils pronouced she as se, that is, with the Spanish "s", because Spanish lacks the "sh " sound. So I don't understand why do you think the Spaniards pronounce the "s" letter like the English "Sh" sound. I read the same misconception many times here on antimoon, so I'm a bit intrigued
kwisatzhaderach   Mon Oct 15, 2007 11:51 pm GMT
Not exactly.They're not the same,it's just the closest thing I could think of.
. Here is the explanation found on Wikipedia:

"The voiceless apicoalveolar fricative,[s̺], is a fricative which is articulated with the tip of the tongue (apex) against the alveolar ridge. It is the sibilant found in dialects of central and northern Portuguese, Galician, several dialects of European Spanish, Antioqueño Spanish, Catalan, Gascon, Languedocien Occitan, Modern Greek, and Basque. Often to speakers of languages or dialects which do not have an apicoalvolear fricative, they are said to have a "whistling" quality."

Maybe you,as a native do not see it, but this is a special sound which requires special attention. It is different from the sound I would normally pronounce in my native tongue. I only wanted to point out this thing.
Rodrigo   Tue Oct 16, 2007 12:35 am GMT
Mi acento no tiene este sonido pero conozco muchas personas antioqueñas y españolas que siempre lo usan, no es igual a la sh inglesa pero sí existe.
Guest   Tue Oct 16, 2007 2:56 am GMT
just for the record, Spanish language does have the Sh sound.
Vicente   Tue Oct 16, 2007 6:12 am GMT
To Guest,
Gracias por los comentarios. Mi lengua materna es el francés. Muchos me dicen que ya hablo casi perfecto y muchos latinos no entienden por qué quiero hablar como un nativo de tal o tal pais, dicen que mejor es sonar neutro, con un acento "internacional" (como la tele). Ya hablo a diario, no puedo hacer mas sino vivir alli, lo que me encantaria de verdad si pudiese realizarlo.
Guest   Tue Oct 16, 2007 10:09 am GMT
No, Spanish does not have he Sh sound. People, study Spanish before you say nonsenses about it.
Guest   Tue Oct 16, 2007 10:11 am GMT
si pudiese suena tan rebuscado en america, en este caso tu acento mas que internacional suena hispanico :-)
Vicente   Tue Oct 16, 2007 5:14 pm GMT
To Guest,
Que raro lo que me cuentas, en Bolivia se usa a menudo, pero es verdad que ya me han comentado que el castellano que se habla allà tiene hartas voces que sonarian arcaicas en otros paises. Por ejemplo en Tarija, sur de Bolivia, no se dice comunmente "de quién este chango (chico) es el hijo?" sino "cuyo hijo es este chango?"
Actualmente trato trato de dominar dos sistemas a la vez sin confundirlos: el castellano de España y la variedad de castellano que se habla en la region de La Paz.
Guest   Tue Oct 16, 2007 5:21 pm GMT
Don't get wrong, Castilian Spanish is the proper Spanish. I'm from Venezuela but I must concede it.
furrykef   Tue Oct 16, 2007 6:50 pm GMT
Uh, on what grounds? I don't think European Spanish (what I presume you mean by Castilian Spanish) is more "proper" than any other dialect any more than I think British English is more proper than American English.

Moreover, I don't believe in the idea that one dialect is more "proper" than another in any language. It's not as if using different vocabulary and grammar (whether or not it's "simpler") in one's native language is going to inhibit advancements in science or anything.

- Kef